MBA Entrance Exams / #IIFT

April 26, 2017 @ 06:08 PM

IIFT 2017 Mock test 2

General Awareness

1. Match the following Nobel Prize, 2011, winners with his/her field of contribution :

Winners Contributions
a. Tomas Transtromer i. Economics
b. Thomas Sargent ii. Literature
c. Tawakkul Karman iii. Chemistry
d. Daniel Schechtman iv. Peace
A. a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv B. a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
C. a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv D. a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

2. 16th NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) summit was held at which of the following cities?

A. Rabat B. Colombo
C. Tehran D. Damascus

3. In the table given below match the chief guests on the Republic Day of India with the correct years of their visit and the name of the country, which he/she belongs: 

Chief guests Years Countries
a. Nursultan Nazarbayev i. 2009 1. Kazakhstan
b. Lee Myung Bak ii. 2010 2. South Korea
c. Yingluck Shinawatra iii. 2011 3. Indonesia
d. Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono iv. 2012 4. Thailand
A. a–i –1, b–ii–2, c–iii–3, d–iv–4 B. a–ii–4, b–i–3, c–iii–2, d–iv–1
C. a–i–1, b–ii–2, c–iv–4, d–iii–3 D. a–ii–4, b–i–3, c–iv–1, d–iii–2

4. According to the 'Child Mortality Estimates Report 2012,' released by United Nations Children's Fund, in which of the following countries 'under-five mortality rates' are the highest in the world?

A. India B. Bangladesh
C. Nigeria D. Afghanistan

5. Match the personalities given below with her nation :

Personalities Nations
a. Julia Gillard i. Brazil
b. Angela Merkel ii. United States
c. Dilma Rousseff iii. Australia
d. Sarah Palin iv. Germany
A. a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv B. a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
C. a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i D. a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
Click Here to Unlock Below Questions & SolutionsClick Here to Unlock Below Questions & Solutions

6. Consider the following matches and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Nobel Prize Winner (2012) Field Contribution
a. Serge Haroche and David J.
Wineland
i. Chemistry 1. ground-breaking experimental
related with individual quantum
systems
b. Robert J. Lefkowitz and Brian K.
Kobilka
ii. Physiology and
Medicine
2. for studies of G-protein-coupled
receptors
c. Sir John B. Gurdon andShinya
Yamanaka
iii. Economics 3. theory of stable allocations and
the practice of market design
d. Alvin E. Roth and Lloyd S.
Shapley
iv. Physics 4. for the discovery that mature cells
can be reprogrammed to become
pluripotent

 

A. a–i–1, b–ii–4, c–iv–3, d–iii–3 B. a–ii–4, b–i–3, c–iii–2, d–iv–3
C. a–i–1, b–ii–4, c–iv–2, d–iii–3 D. a–iv–1, b–i–2, c–ii–4 ,d–iii–3

7. Match the Company with its Managing Director/Chairman and the year in which they reigned 

Company Year Managing Director/Chairman
a. ONGC i. 1973 1. Arup Roy Choudhury
b. NTPC ii. 1956 2. Chandra Shekhar Verma
c. SAIL iii. 1975 3. Sudhir Vasudeva
d. NHPC iv. 1984 4. A.B.L. Srivastava

 

A. a-i-2, b-ii-3, c-iii-4, d-iv-1 B. a-iii-2, b-i-1, c-ii-4, d-iv-3
C. a-ii-3, b-iv-1, c-i-2, d-iii-4 D. a-iv-3, b-iii-4, c-i-1, d-ii-2

8. Recently in a bid to strengthen its mobile business, Google announced that it would acquire Mobility Holdings of :

A. Vodafone B. Airtel
C. Samsung D. Motorola

9. Duty Entitlement Pass Book (DEPB) scheme is related to :

A. Income Tax B. Manufacturing industries
C. Planning expenditure D. Export trade

10. Match the Place with its corresponding state and the person related to it.

Place Related Person State
a. Kushi Nagar i. Sardar Patel 1. Bihar
b. Pawapuri ii. Gautam Buddha 2. Orissa
c. Bardoli iii. Mahavir 3. Uttar Pradesh
d. Cuttack iv Subhas Chandra Bose 4. Gujrat

 

A. a-ii-3, b-iii-1, c-i-4, d-iv-2 B. a-i-3, b-ii-1, c-iii-2, d-iv-4
C. a-i-4, b-ii-3, c-iv-2, d-iii-1 D. a-iii-2, b-i-4, c-iv-3, d-ii-1

11. Recently, the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE), under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises, has directed the Maharatna and Navratna companies to set aside some portion of their profits after tax (PAT) for expenditure on R&D. What is the minimum percentage of Profit that has been fixed for these companies respectively?

A. 1% and 0.5% B. 1% and 1.5%
C. 1.5% and 0.5% D. 1.5% and 2%

12. The Centre proposes to merge the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the yet-to-be-launched National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) during :

A. 11th Five Year Plan Period B. 12th Five Year Plan Period
C. 13th Five Year Plan Period D. 14th Five Year Plan Period

13. An Indian International Airport Limited received the “Golden Chariot” Russian Transport Public award. Name that International Airport.

A. Delhi International Airport Limited B. Bengaluru International Airport
C. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport D. Cochin International Airport

14. The World Steel Conference 2012 will be held in which of the following countries?

A. Russia B. USA
C. Germany D. India

15. One exaflop is how many times faster than a petaflop ?

A. 10 times B. 100 times
C. 1000 times D. 10,000 times

16. Who among the following persons has recently took over the charge of Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister?

A. Pulok Chatterjee B. M N Narain
C. T R Biswas D. R N Tiwari

17. Which of the following state has topped the list of States that provided jobs to rural households for 100 days as per the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) at the end of the second quarter of the financial year 2011-12?

A. Tamil Nadu B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Gujarat

18. Russia has pumped the first “technical” gas into a new undersea pipeline to Germany, which is built across :

A. Caspian sea B. Black sea
C. Baltic sea D. Adriatic sea

19. According to a report by the Bachpan Bachao Andolan, the number of child labourers in India is around :-

A. Four crore B. Five crore
C. Six crore D. Seven crore

20. Match the National Park-Ramsar Site-State.

National Park Ramsar Site State
a. Bandhavgarh National Park i. Bhoj Wetland 1. Jammu and Kashmir
b. Sariska National Park ii. Surinsar-Mansar Lakes 2. Himachal Pradesh
c. Pin Valley National Park iii. Renuka Wetland 3. Rajasthan
d. Hemis National Park iv. Sambhar Lake 4. Madhya Pradesh
A. a-i-3, b-iv-4, c-iii-1, d-ii-2 B. a-iv-3, b-iii-4, c-ii-1, d-i-2
C. a-iv-4, b-i-3, c-ii-2, d-iii-1 D. a-i-4, b-iv-3, c-iii-2, d-ii-1

21. Match the Vitamin-Chemical Name- Deficiency Diseases.

Vitamin Chemical Name Deficiency Diseases
a. Vitamin-A i. Calciferol 1. Scurvy
b. Vitamin-B ii. Ascorbic Acid 2. Xerophthalmia
c. Vitamin-C iii. Thymine 3. Rickets
d. Vitamin-D iv. Retinol 4. Beriberi

 

A. a-iv-3, b-i-2, c-iii-4, d-ii-1 B. a-iii-2, b-ii-3, c-iv-1, d-i-4
C. a-iv-2, b-iii-4, c-ii-1, d-i-3 D. a-ii-1, b-iii-3, c-i-2, d-iv-4

Reading Comprehension

 Passage – 4

A onetime accordion player, stilt walker, and fire-eater, Guy Laliberté is now CEO of one of Canada’s largest cultural exports, Cirque du Soleil. Founded in 1984 by a group of street performers, Cirque has achieved revenues that Ringling Bros. and Barnum & Bailey—the world’s leading circus— took more than a century to attain. Cirque’s rapid growth occurred in an unlikely setting. The circus business was (and still is) in long-term decline. Alternative forms of entertainment—sporting events, TV, and video games—were casting a growing shadow. Children, the mainstay of the circus audience, preferred PlayStations to circus acts. There was also rising sentiment, fueled by animal rights groups, against the use of animals. On the supply side, the star performers that Ringling and the other circuses relied on to draw in the crowds could often name their own terms. As a result, the industry was hit by steadily decreasing audiences and increasing costs.

How did Cirque profitably increase revenues by a factor of 22 over the last ten years in such an unattractive environment? The tagline for one of the first Cirque productions is revealing: “We reinvent the circus.” Even as Cirque stripped away some of the traditional circus offerings, it injected new elements drawn from the world of theater. Cirque did not make its money by competing within the confines of the existing industry or by stealing customers from Ringling and the others. Instead it created uncontested market space that made the competition irrelevant. It pulled in a whole new group of customers who were traditionally noncustomers of the industry—adults and corporate clients who had turned to theater, opera, or ballet and were, therefore, prepared to pay several times more than the price of a conventional circus ticket.

The business universe consists of two distinct kinds of space, which we think of as red and blue oceans. Red oceans represent all the industries in existence today—the known market space. In red oceans, industry boundaries are defined and accepted, and the competitive rules of the game are well understood. Here, companies try to outperform their rivals in order to grab a greater share of existing demand. As the space gets more and more crowded, prospects for profits and growth are reduced. Products turn into commodities, and increasing competition turns the water bloody. Blue oceans denote all the industries not in existence today—the unknown market space, untainted by competition. In blue oceans, demand is created rather than fought over. There is ample opportunity for growth that is both profitable and rapid. There are two ways to create blue oceans. In a few cases, companies can give rise to completely new industries, as eBay did with the online auction industry. But in most cases, a blue ocean is created from within a red ocean when a company alters the boundaries of an existing industry. As will become evident later, this is what Cirque did. In breaking through the boundary traditionally separating circus and theater, it made a new and profitable blue ocean from within the red ocean of the circus industry.

Although the term may be new, blue oceans have always been with us. Look back 100 years and ask yourself which industries known today were then unknown. The answer: Industries as basic as automobiles, music recording, aviation, petrochemicals, pharmaceuticals, and management consulting were unheard-of or had just begun to emerge. Now turn the clock back only 30 years and ask yourself the same question. Again, a plethora of multibillion- dollar industries jump out: mutual funds, cellular telephones, biotechnology, discount retailing, express package delivery, snowboards, coffee bars, and home videos, to name a few.

Looking forward, it seems clear to us that blue oceans will remain the engine of growth. Prospects in most established market spaces— red oceans—are shrinking steadily. Technological advances have substantially improved industrial productivity, permitting suppliers to produce an unprecedented array of products and services. And as trade barriers between nations and regions fall and information on products and prices becomes instantly and globally available, niche markets and monopoly havens are continuing to disappear. At the same time, there is little evidence of any increase in demand, at least in the developed markets, where recent United Nations statistics even point to declining populations. The result is that in more and more industries, supply is overtaking demand.

As brands become more similar, people increasingly base purchase choices on price. Unfortunately, most companies seem becalmed in their red oceans. In a study of business launches in 108 companies, we found that 86% of those new ventures were line extensions— incremental improvements to existing industry offerings—and a mere 14% were aimed at creating new markets or industries. While line extensions did account for 62% of the total revenues, they delivered only 39% of the total profits. By contrast, the 14% invested in creating new markets and industries delivered 38% of total revenues and a startling 61% of total profits.

The tendency of corporate strategy to focus on winning against rivals was exacerbated by the meteoric rise of Japanese companies like Mitsubishi and Honda in the 1970s. For the first time in corporate history, customers were deserting Western companies in droves. As competition mounted in the global marketplace, a slew of red ocean strategies emerged, all arguing that competition was at the core of corporate success and failure. Today, one hardly talks about strategy without using the language of competition. The term that best symbolizes this is “competitive advantage.” In the competitive-advantage worldview, companies are often driven to outperform rivals and capture greater shares of existing market space.

22. It follows from the passage that in blue oceans

I. There are more commodities than products.

II. Demand is static or decreasing.

III. Demand is created.

IV. Products become commodities.

A. III & IV B. Only III
C. Only IV D. I & II

23. Identify the correct sequence:

I. Cirque -> Mitsubushi -> Ringling Bros

II. Barnum & Bailey -> Cirque -> Honda

III. Cirque -> biotechnology -> mutual funds

IV. Blue oceans -> Red oceans -> Competitive advantage

A. I & II B. I & III
C. II & IV D. None of the above

24. According to the author

I. Red oceans are created when blue oceans are aggregated.

II. Blue oceans can be created from within a red ocean.

III. Blue oceans encompass most existing industries.

IV. Red oceans have shifting boundaries due to fierce competition.

A. I & II B. Only II
C. II & III D. I & III

Directions for questions 25 to 30: From the given pair of words select the most appropriate pair that fills the gaps and creates a meaningful sentence.

25.  Life today is principally _______ by the dominant culture, a competitive consumerism in which self-________ is celebrated, brand names fetishised, and leisure thoroughly commercialised.

A. capitulated, actualization B. governed, aggrandisement
C. domineered, depreciation D. tyrannized, realization

26. Cameron’s ______ of draconian punishments for the riot perpetrators will undermine respect for law and will add to the sense of unfairness already _____ in our society.

A. opposition, prevalent B. denunciation, pandemic
C. encouragement, rife D. advocacy, sweeping

27. After the recent financial sector-led-global economic crisis, India’s ________ policies covering external sector issues such as capital account convertibility have won high praise and commended for  _______ by other countries.

A. conscientious, denegation B. prudential, emulation
C. parsimonious, imitation D. precipitous, endorsement

28. A riot is a social phenomenon and requires a social analysis and response and it’s the denial of that duty that’s reckless and ________, not the alleged “socio-economic excuses” ________ by conservatives.

A. blithe, posited B. irresponsible, reviled
C. placatory, denigrated D. impetuous, approbated

29. When historians look back, they will be most immediately struck by the ________ of the quake with  the global stock market turmoil sparked off by the _______ of the US’s credit rating.

A. concomitance, upgrading B. divergence, declension
C. happenstance, stasis D. conjuncture, downgrading

30. The suspicion of strangers, growing intolerance of immigrants, an increasing tendency to ______ minorities instead of entering into a mutually respectful dialogue with them are just some of the tendencies that have been ______ by the despicable politicians.

A. sequester, waylaid B. wheedle, eschewed
C. browbeat, adjured D. hector, betrayed

Directions for questions 31 to 33: Each sentence has a part which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Follow the requirements of the standard written English to choose your answer. Selection should make the sentence clear, exact and free of grammatical error. It should minimize awkwardness, ambiguity and redundancy.

31. Furthermore, throughout the global financi al crisis, in the months after the March earthquake, and in recent days with renewed turmoil in global markets, Japanese government bonds continue to demonstrate strong safe-haven features.

A. Japanese government bonds had continuously demonstrated strong safe-haven features. B. Japanese government bonds continue to demonstrate strong safe-haven features.
C. Japanese government bonds would continue demonstrating strong safe-haven features. D. Japanese government bonds are continuously demonstrating strong safe-haven features.

32. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on Thursday expressed concern over rising food inflation, saying it is perilously near double digits. Also, he maintained that the weekly inflation figures are variant and an assessment should be made on the basis of a relatively long period.

A. Also, he maintained that the weekly inflation figures are variant and an assessment should be
made on the basis of a relatively long period.
B. Also, he maintained that the weekly inflation figures are variant and an assessment should be
made on the basis of a relatively longer period.
C. Also, he maintains that the weekly inflation figures are variant and an assessment should be
made on the basis of a relatively longer period.
D. Also, he maintained that the weekly inflation figures are variant and an assessment would be
made by the basis of a relatively long period.

33. The disastrous lending practices of leading banks then in the ‘sub-prime’ housing loan segment landed not the financial sector and the U.S. economy into a mess but also dragged most developed countries in a mess because of the strong global linkages.

A. landed not the financial sector and the U.S. economy into a mess but also dragged most
developed countries in a mess
B. landed not only the financial sector and the U.S. economy in a mess but also dragged most
developed countries in a mess
C. landed not only the financial sector and the U.S. economy into a mess but dragged most
developed countries into a mess
D. landed not only the financial sector and the U.S. economy in a mess but also dragged most
developed countries into a mess

Directions for questions 34 and 35: From the given options identify the word pair which is unrelated to the given word pair.

34. PERIPATETIC: PHLEGMATIC

A. Gallivanting : Stoic B. Peregrine : Impassible
C. Egregious : Deleterious D. Ambulatory : Apathetic

35. PERFIDY: INIQUITY

A. Connivance : Licentiousness B. Subterfuge : Turpitude
C. Ingenuousness : Apotheosis D. Duplicity : Depravity

Directions for questions 36 and 37: Select the pair of wrongly spelt words from the given set of choices.

36.

A. Efflorescence : Reconnaissance B. Rapprochement : Decrudescence
C. Lachrimal : Squallor D. Panegyric : Bourgeois

37.

A. Peccadillo : Raconteur B. Legerdemain : Soliloquy
C. Afficionado : Triapse D. Haemorrhage : Perspicacious

Directions for question 38 and 39: Select the most appropriate words from the given choices to fill the blanks.

38. This historical fact needs to be _______ today, especially when a constitutional authority like the Election Commissioner, in his _________ attempt to prove that illegal Bangladeshis are behind the violence, claims that this stream of migration into Assam started during the late 1960s and early 1970s.

A. exfoliated, fallacious B. adducted, facetious
C. reiterated, overzealous D. falcated, adenomatous

39. Regular as clockwork, every four years there are predictable __________ in the media concerning the over-commercialisation of the Olympics. The complaint has always struck me as ____________.

A. commemorations, inappropriate B. prophecies, immoderate
C. lamentations, paradoxical D. calibrations, ludicrous

Direction for questions 40 and 41: For each of the following questions, choose the most appropriate “one word” for the given expressions.

40. Accustom (someone) to something, especially something unpleasant.

A. Bemire B. Delate
C. Inure D. Abscise

41. A novel dealing with a person’s formative years or spiritual education.

A. Gothic B. Bildungsroman
C. Bibliothecae D. Iambus

Directions for questions 42 and 43 : Given below are the first and last parts of a sentence, and the remaining sentence is broken into four parts p, q, r and s. From options A, B, C and D, choose the arrangement of these parts that forms a complete, meaningful sentence.

42. Senior people and administrators ___________________ pursuit of knowledge and teaching.

p. The quality of research they have done,

q. The aspirants are assessed on the basis of what they have published,

r. And how passionate they seem about the

s. Who make decisions make sure that 

A. rqps B. qrps
C. sqpr D. psrq

43. More than a thousand people _______________ by The Guardian on Sunday.

p. On Saturday were not a part of the protest groups,

q. Stated the internal police report accessed

r. But probably came from the suburbs to cause riots,

s. Who sparked the violence at Tiananmen square here

A. qrps B. rsqp
C. psrq D. sprq

Directions for questions 44 and 45: Each question below consists of an incomplete sentence. Four phrases/idioms marked A, B, C and D are given beneath each sentence. Mark the option that best completes the sentence.

44. Even after facing much hostility from his colleagues, the administrator _____________________.

A. petered out. B. was full to the gunwales.
C. nailed his colours to the mast. D. was burnt to a cinder

45. There have been doubts raised about the effectiveness of Scrutiny Panels _______________________ complaints.

A. who vet and filter out frivolous B. which vet and filter out frivolous
C. which vetted and filter out frivolous D. that are vetting and filter out frivolous

Directions for questions 46 and 47: In the question below, there are two sentences containing underlined homonyms, which may either be mis-spelt or inappropriately used in the context of the sentence. Select the appropriate answer from the option given below :

46. I. His feigned ingenuous behaviour utterly beguiled the cops.

II. He has single-handedly put together this ingenious show.

A. only sentence I is correct B. only sentence II is correct
C. nailed his colours to the mast.both sentences I and II are correct D. both sentences I and II are incorrect

47. I. He loaths people who are snobs.

II. He is loathe to continue taking this career path.

A. only sentence I is correct B. only sentence II is correct
C. both sentences I and II are correct D. both sentences I and II are incorrect

Directions for questions 48 and 49: Match the words in column 1 with their appropriate meanings in column 2.

48. 

Column 1 Column 2
a. Usurious i. Stubbornly adamant
b. Anathema ii. Trick or deceive
c. Cozen iii. Curse
d. Intransigent iv. Pastoral
e. Bucolic v. Extortionate

 

A. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-v, e-iv B. a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-iv
C. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v D. a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-iii, e-i

49.

Column 1 Column 2
a. Contiguous i. Disappear
b. Forlorn ii. Sharing a common border
c. Supine iii. Pitifully sad and abandoned
d. Opprobrium iv. Severe criticism
e. Dissipate v. Lying face upwards

 

A. a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-i, e-v B. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-v
C. a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-i D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-v, e-i

50. Which of the following cannot be termed as ‘tautology’?

A. This is a short summary of the book. B. It’s 3 a.m. in the morning
C. An organization expects joint efforts from its members. D. The fact needs to be reiterated again.

Directions for questions 51 and 52: Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one. 

51. I. But although few among the British understood so well the case for a new Community, many were reluctant to be disadvantaged in Continental markets and excluded from the taking of important policy decisions.

II. So after failing to secure a free trade area that would incorporate the EEC as well as other West European countries, successive British governments sought entry into the Community, finally succeeding in 1973.

III. But while the British played a leading part in developing the common market into a more complete single market, they continued to lack the political motives that have driven the founder states, as well as some others, to press towards other forms of deeper integration.

IV. One such exception was Winston Churchill who, less than a year and a half after the end of the war, said in a speech in Zurich: ‘We must now build a kind of United States of Europe . . . the first step must be a partnership between France and Germany . . . France and Germany must take the lead together.’

V. With some exceptions, they failed to understand the strength of the case for such reform.

A. V, IV, I, II, III B. I, II, III, V, IV
C. II, III, V, IV, I D. II, III, V, IV, I

52.  I. The culture of criticism was auctioned off to the lowest bidder to make space for Page 3 journalism some years ago.

II. The Indian criticism scene however, has long been threatening to fade into the sunset.

III. Film scholar and historian Amrit Gangar believes that in the age of PR and hagiography, a hatchet job can be a good intervention.

IV. If ‘The Hatchet Job’ does not bury the hatchet and remains intrepidly and intelligently critical, then it will be advantageous for our general cerebral health.

V. In any event, the debate around criticism has got itself a new pair of running shoes.

A. I, V, III, II, IV B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. III, IV, V, II, I D. V, II, III, IV, I

Direction for questions 53 and 54: Each of the questions presents a sentence, part or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer that produces the most effective sentence; your answer should make the sentence clear, exact, and free of grammatical error.

53. On parallel paths though with different emphasis, different lexicons and overlapping clouds of experts these emergent paradigms have created space for a fresh struggle with the tough questions.

A. Within parallel paths with different emphasis and lexicons and overlapping clouds of experts
these emerging paradigms have created space
B. On parallel paths with different emphasis, different lexicons and overlapping clouds of experts
these emergent paradigms have created space
C. On parallel paths, though with different emphases, different lexicons, and overlapping clouds of
experts, these emergent paradigms have created space
D. Within parallel paths though, with different emphases, lexicons and overlapping clouds within
experts have created space

54. Intense integration of markets, trade, and finance have accompanied the latest tidal wave of globalization, facilitated by seismic policy shifts, akin those associated with the fall of the Soviet Union, the European Union being formed, and the opening of emerging economies.

A. have accompanied the latest tidal wave of globalization, facilitated by seismic policy shifts, akin
those associated with the fall of the Soviet Union, the European Union being formed, and the
opening of emerging economies.
B. accompanied the latest tidal wave of globalization, which has been facilitated by seismic policy
shifts, akin those associated with the fall of the Soviet Union, the European Union being formed,
and the opening of emerging economies.
C. has accompanied the latest tidal wave of globalization facilitated by seismic policy shifts, akin
those associated with the fall of the Soviet Union, the European Union being formed, and the
opening of emerging economies.
D. has accompanied the latest tidal wave of globalization, facilitated by seismic policy shifts, like
those associated with the fall of the Soviet Union, the formation of the European Union, and the
opening of emerging economies.

Directions for questions 55 and 56:  In each of the following questions a sentence is given in “Direct Speech “Identify the right alternative A, B, C or D which best expresses this sentence in “Indirect Speech”.

55. She said, “I have been working on the implementation of the strategy since the day I joined the organization.”

A. She said she has been working on the implementation of the strategy since the day she had
joined the organization.
B. She said she had been working on the implementation of the strategy since the day she joined
the organization.
C. She had said she was working on the implementation of the strategy since the day she had
joined the organization.
D. She was saying that she has been working on the implementation of the strategy since the day
she has joined the organization.

56. The manager said, “I will try to look at the plans tomorrow.”

A. The manager said that he will try to look at the pans tomorrow. B. The manager said he would try to look at the plans tomorrow.
C. The manager said he will be trying to look at the plans today. D. The manager said he will try to look at the plans tomorrow.

Directions for questions 57 and 58 : Select the right combination of numbers given in A, B, C and D so that letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word.

57. 

G I B A A T R E R
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

 

A. 2 9 7 1 6 5 3 4 8 B. 4 3 5 1 8 9 2 7 6
C. 4 7 3 2 6 9 5 1 8 D. 3 9 4 6 1 5 2 8 7
 

58. 

G B N A L C N I A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

 

A. 5 4 3 2 1 6 9 7 B. 8 7 1 2 4 3 6 5 9
C. 2 4 5 9 3 6 8 7 1 D. 3 9 5 4 1 8 2 7 6

Quantitative Analysis

59.  A man and a woman can construct a wall in 60 days working together. If the efficiency of the man is three-fourth of that of the woman, in how many days can the man complete the work alone?

A. 105 B. 120
C. 115 D. None of the above

60. Ashutosh was on his way to catch the ‘Jay Express’ to Agra to attend the marriage of his friend, Ajay. On the way, he got struck in a traffic jam and as a result, missed his train by a few minutes. In order to make it to the wedding in time, he hired an SUV and drove down Agra covering one-fourth of the distance at a speed 48 km/hr, half of the rest distance at 72 km/hr and the remaining distance at 96 km/hr. Find the average speed (in km/hr) for the journey.

A. 69 1/11 B. 69 9/11
C. 67 13/17 D. 69 11/17

61. Six delegates, three from India and three from Pakistan, congregated in Geneva to attend a round table conference for peace and mutual cooperation. Among the delegates, three were males and three were females. They were asked to sit on six identical chairs that were equidistant around a circular table. If male and female delegates sat at alternate positions, what is the probability that Mr. Digvijay Sinha from India sat diagonally opposite to Miss Meena Rabbani Khan from Pakistan?

A. 0.25 B. 0.33
C. 0.5 D. 0.67

62. How many times between 12:00 noon and 1:00 p.m., the second hand and the minute hand coincide with each other in a clock?

A. 58 B. 59
C. 60 D. 61

63. There are some balls in a bag out of which seven balls are black and three balls are white. The bag contains six plastic balls and seven leather balls. Three of the plastic balls are black in color and two are white in color. One of the leather balls is white in color and two are black in color. There is a green ball, which is of neither leather nor of plastic. What can be the least possible number of balls in the bag?

A. 17 B. 16
C. 15 D. 14

64. What is the maximum number of cuboids of dimensions 4 cm × 3 cm × 5 cm that can be formed by using 729 cubes each of dimensions 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm?

A. 10 B. 12
C. 11 D. 13

65. Arpit builds an overhead tank in his house, which has three taps namely T1, T2 and T3 attached to it. T1 is an inlet tap that can fill the tank in 15 hours; T2 is also an inlet tap which takes 150% more time than the time taken by T1 to fill the tank. T3 is an outlet tap which can empty the tank in 45 hours. One day, in order to fill the tank, Arpit opens T1 and after two hours, opens T2 as well. However, at the end of the sixth hour, he realizes that T3 has been kept open right from the beginning and immediately closes it. Find the approximate time (in hours) in which tank gets full.

A. 7 B. 8
C. 13 D. 14

66. The metro schedule of TP metro station, which is in Delhi, is designed in such a way that a train departs from the station for ‘Blue Line’ at an interval of every 10 minutes, for ‘Yellow Line’ at an interval of every 12 minutes, for ‘Red Line’ at an interval of every 20 minutes and for ‘Orange Line’ at an interval of every 25 minutes. If on one morning, a trains for each of the mentioned lines had departed simultaneously from the station at 10 a.m., but due to heavy power failure in Delhi on the same day between 1:00 pm and 3:00 p.m. metro services came to a standstill. Metro services were restored to its usual schedule at 3:00 p.m. again. At what time immediately after the restoration of metro services, would a train have departed for each of the mentioned lines simultaneously from TP station?

A. 5:00 p.m. B. 4:00 p.m.
C. 3:00 p.m. D. Cannot be determined

67. Find the coordinates of the point where a perpendicular drawn from point (2, 3) on line y = 2x – 2 intersects the line.

A. (14/5, 3) B. (12/5, 14/5) 
C. (2, 12/5) D. None of these

68.  Cost of production of one unit of drug produced by Sun Life Ltd. is Rs. 1710. The units produced but not sold in the market are transported for storage on the same day. The cost of operating one storage unit per day is Rs. 33,000. A storage unit can store up to maximum of 1,200 units of drugs. Selling price per unit of the drug in market is Rs. 4,800. On a particular day 9,000 units of the drugs were produced and on the next day 7,500 units of the drugs were produced. On each of the two days, 60% of the units produced were sold in the market on the same day. By what percentage is the revenue generated by the company more/less than the cost incurred for the two days? (Assume that all the storage units were empty earlier and no more units were sold except for those mentioned)

A. 33.33% B. 25%
C. 66.67% D. 40%

69. Find the coefficient of x30 in the expansion of (1 – x5)6(1 + x3)10.

A. – 5038 B. 5038 
C. 2518 D. – 2518

70. In the figure given below, AB and CD are diameters of a circular sheet with center O and radius ‘r’ cm. CX = OX = OY = YD = r/2 cm. The sheet is folded along PQ and MN such that the points C and D touch each other at O. What is the area (in cm2) of the folded portion?

A. r2((π/3)-√3/2) B. r2((2π/3)-√3/2)
C. r2/3(2π -3√3/) D. None of these

71. In a survey conducted in Abadpur, children are divided into three age groups – A, B and C. A child with age ‘x’ years belongs to: Group–A, if 6 ≥ x > 0, Group–B, if 12 ≥ x > 6 and Group–C, if 18 ≥ x > 12. Children in these age groups constitute 45%, 35% and 20% respectively of child population in Abadpur. The probability that a child from age groups A, B and C will catch malarial infection is 0.0075, 0.004 and 0.0025 respectively. If a child catch malarial infection, what is the probability that he/she belongs to the age group B?

A. 0.1567 B. 0.2654
C. 0.3232 D. None of these

72. Raj works part time in three different organisations – P, Q and R – everyday. Each of these organisations pays a fixed salary on hourly basis. On any day, Raj earned Rs. 3,850 by working for 4 hrs, 5 hrs and 6 hrs respectively and on the next day, he earned Rs. 5,350 by working for 5 hrs, 3 hrs and 7 hrs respectively. If the hourly salaries paid by the three organisations are in Arithmetic Progression, find the difference between the hourly salaries of the highest and the lowest paying organisations?

A. Rs. 1,000 B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 750 D. None of these

73. A solid sphere is cut into eight identical parts using three cuts. One of the parts is painted blue on its curved face and red on its plain faces. By what percentage is the quantity of blue colour used more/less than the quantity of red colour used?

A. 60% B. 66.67%
C. 45% D. 33.33%

74. The quadratic equation ax2 – 6x + b = 0 has equal and real roots. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are natural numbers, how many ordered pairs (a, b) are possible?

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3

75. A shopkeeper sells phones of four different brands – Mokia, Carbon, Cherry and Slice. Revenue (in Rs. ‘000) generated from the sales of phones of the four brands in April was 185, 230, 475 and 360 respectively and in May it was 211, 356, 533 and 500 respectively. At end of every month the shopkeeper calculates the absolute difference between the percentage contribution of a brand in the total revenue generated in that month and its percentage contribution in the total revenue generated in the previous month. The brand with the lowest difference between the two has the highest brand stability. Which brand has the lowest brand stability in May?

A. Mokia B. Carbon
C. Cherry D. Slice

76. If ‘p’ and ‘q’ are prime numbers such that p = q + 2 and ‘q’ is greater than 100, then which of the following is always true?

A. p2 – q2 is always divisible by 24 B. p3 + q3 is always divisible by 24.
C. Both A and B D. None of these

77. The total cost ‘c’ (in ‘000 Rs.) incurred by a farmer as a function of quantity of production ‘x’ (in kilotons) is given by c = (x2 – 1)(x3 + 2). Find the marginal cost (per kiloton) when the quantity of production is 2 kilotons.

A. Rs. 76,000 B. Rs. 48,000
C. Rs. 60,000 D. None of these

78. There are 8 poles on the same side of a straight road. Two of these poles are without flags; two of these have a flag of the same country and each of the rest of the four poles has a plain flag of a different colour. What is the probability that the first four poles from either end have two flags of the country and two plain colored flags?

A. 1/140 B. 6/35
C. 1/70 D. None of these

79. Three partners Ajay, Bijay and Cijay started a business with the respective investments of Rs. 18,000, Rs. 33,000 and Rs. 9,000. They also took a loan from bank for two years at rate of 10% p.a. compounded annually. They repaid the loan in two yearly installments of Rs. 12,100 each. The total profit at the end of the first year was 30% of the net investment. If the bank installments were paid from the profit only, find the profit share of Cijay at the end of the first year.

A. Rs. 1,355 B. Rs. 2,700
C. Rs. 3, 645 D. Rs. 1,830

80. Equation of a curve in X-Y plane is given as y = x3 – 2x2 + 6x – 4. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve at x = 1.

A. y + 5x + 4 = 0 B. y – 5x + 4 = 0
C. y – 2x + 4 = 0 D. y + 2x + 4 = 0

Logical Reasoning

81. In a certain code language OASIS is written as 163221324. What will be the code of ‘MIRAGE’?

A. 14112151211 B. 14123151112
C. 14112115211 D. None of the above

82. If in a certain language, PLANTS is coded as 125137, then what will be the code for VERTEBRATE?

A. 5218925295 B. 4592525219
C. 5219252954 D. None of the above

A team of representatives is to be selected from 8 persons – A to H. C and D are always selected together. If H is selected, then A is also selected. Exactly one of G and F has to be selected in the team. A and E cannot be in the same team. B is selected only if D is selected. If A is selected, then C is not selected in the team.

83. If A is one of the members of the team, what is the maximum size of the team?

A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. None of the above

84. Which of the following sets of representatives cannot be selected together?

A. G, B, C B. H, B, A
C. B, C, E D. None of the above

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager in an organization.

The candidate must :

(I) Be a Mechanical Engineer and have obtained at least 65 percent marks in Engineering.

(II) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 16.01.2013.

(III) Have secured at least 50 percent marks in the written examination.

(IV) Have secured at least 55 percent marks in the selection interview.

(V) Have post-qualification work experience of at least 4 years in manufacturing sector.

However, if the candidate satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except :
(a) criteria (I), but has secured at least 65 percent marks in M Tech (Mechanical), the case is to be referred to the DGM.

(b) criteria (II), but has post-qualification experience of at least five years as Assistant Manager (in infrastructure sector), the case is to be referred to the GM.

Based on the above criteria and information provided on each of the candidate in the questions below, you have to decide which course of action should be taken against each candidate.

Without assuming anything regarding any applicant, the decision should be based on the information provided. All these cases are given to you as on 16.01.2013.

85.  Mahendra was born on 15th December 1986. He has secured 65% marks in both written examination and selection interview. He has been working as a Assistant Manager for the last 6 years in an organization after completing his B Tech (Mechanical) with 65% marks.

A. He is not selected B. He is selected
C. His case is referred to DGM D. The data provided is not adequate to take a decision

86. Neeraj was born on 23rd October 1987. He was a brilliant student and completed Bachelor of Technology (Mechanical) with 74% marks. He was keen to work and joined a big manufacturing sector company since the year 2007. He has scored 60 percent marks in the interview and 58 percent marks in the written examination.

A. He is selected B. He is not selected
C. His case is to be referred to DGM D. His case is to be referred to GM

87. Harsh Sahay was born on 19th March 1984. He has secured 61% marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 63% marks in B Tech Mechanical and 67% marks in M Tech (Mechanical). He has been working in a manufacturing company as an Assistant Manager for the past six years after completing his post graduation.

A. He is not selected B. His case is to be referred to DGM
C. His case is to be referred to GM D. The data provided is not adequate to take a decision

Directions for questions 89 and 90 : Each of the questions below starts with a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not confirm to the accepted facts. Read the conclusions carefully and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

88.  Statements :
a. Some resorts are hotels. b. All hotels are motels.
c. All hotels are expensive

Conclusions :

1. Some hotels are not resorts. 2. Some motels are hotels.
3. All motels are expensive 4. Some motels are resorts.

A. Either 1 or 2 and 3 follow B. 2 and 4 follow
C. 1, 2 and 3 follow D. None of the above

89. Statements :
a. All dogs are mammals. b. Some mammals are not carnivores. c. All dogs are carnivores.

Conclusions:

1. Some carnivores are dogs.             2. Only mammals are dogs.
3. All carnivores are dogs.                 4. Some carnivores are not mammals.

A. Only 1 and 4 follow B. Only 2 and 3 follow
C. Only 1 and 2 follow D. None of the above

Directions for questions 90 and 91 : In each question given below, a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered 1, 2 and 3. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the three suggested courses of action logically follow(s).

90. Statement : Poor diet, lack of exercise and smoking are the main offenders behind Patna’s high number of deaths from heart disease.

Courses of action :

1. Government should provide increased grants to health researchers to conduct extensive research towards finding cures for heart ailments.

2. Free diet consultation should be given to patients in hospitals.

3. More and more awareness campaigns should be devised to educate people on the benefits of nutrition and the dangers of smoking

A. Only 1 and 2 follow B. Only 3 follows
C. Only 1 and 3 follow D. All follow

91. Statement : Maruti, the manufacturer of XS4 cars has discovered a probable defect in the hand braking systems of cars manufactured between March and August.

Courses of action :

1. Send Recall letters to all the owners of vehicles affected.

2. Conduct thorough in-house research into the matter and establish the nature of the problem and degree of its effects.

3. Provide free replacement and maintenance services for the cars containing the defective part.

A. Only 1 and 3 follow B. Only 1 follows
C. Only 2 follows D. Only 1 and 2 follow

A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration and some initial steps of the arrangement.

INPUT: Life Is Something That Everyone Should Try At Least Once

STEP 1: Once Is Something That Everyone Should Try At Least Life

STEP 2: Once Is Something That Should Everyone Try At Least Life

STEP 3: Once That Something Is Should Everyone Try At Least Life

STEP 4: Once That Something Is Should Everyone Least At Try Life

STEP 5: Once That At Is Should Everyone Least Something Try Life

STEP 6: Life That At Is Should Everyone Least Something Try Once

STEP 7: Life That At Is Everyone Should Least Something Try Once

STEP 8: Life Is At That Everyone Should Least Something Try Once

92. Which of the following will be STEP 14 for the given input?

A. Once That Something Is Should Everyone Least At Try Life B. Once That Something Is Should Everyone Try At Least Life
C. Once That At Is Should Everyone Least Something Try Life D. Should That Something Is Once Life Least At Try Everyone

93. Which of the steps given below will be same as the INPUT string?

A. STEP 24 B. STEP 20
C. STEP 22 D. STEP 18

94. Agha, Boman and Chandni work in three different department of a company. The employee working in Marketing belongs to Mumbai. Boman, who doesn’t belong to Delhi, works in Operations. Chandni doesn’t belong to Mumbai and Agha doesn’t work in Finance. Who belongs to Kolkata?

A. Agha B. Boman
C. Chandni D. Either Agha or Boman

95. Five players – Pinki, Qureshi, Rajat, Sona and Tarun – played Table Tennis among themselves. A player played exactly one match with any of the other players and a match involved two different players only. Tarun said I played a match with Qureshi. Pinki said I played exactly two matches but none of them with Rajat. Qureshi said I played the maximum number of matches. Rajat said only Tarun, Sona and I played the same total number of matches. Rajat played with which of the following player(s)?

A. Sona B. Qureshi
C. Tarun and Sona D. Tarun, Sona and Qureshi

The table given below shows the value of reserves of four banks with RBI over a period of 12 months in the year 2010.

Note: The price of gold remains constant in a month.

96. Assume that value of Gold remained stable over the twelve month period and was equal to Rs. 30 crores per quintal. In which month is the total value of reserves of ICICI Bank with RBI the lowest?

A. March B. May
C. July D. October

97. For how many numbers of months is the absolute percentage change in Cash reserves of ICICI Bank with RBI over the previous month more than the absolute percentage change in Cash reserves of HSBC Bank with RBI over the previous month?

A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. 8

98. For which bank is the ratio of the value of Gold reserves to the value of Cash reserves with RBI the highest in May?

A. HSBC Bank B. IDBI Bank
C. HDFC Bank D. ICICI Bank

99. What is the average value of Cash reserves (in Rs. crores) of HSBC Bank with RBI over the period of twelve months in the year 2010?

A. 2450 B. 2438
C. 2440 D. 2442

100. Which of the following statement is true, based on the data in the above table?

A. The growth rate in Gold reserves of HDFC Bank in a month over the previous month continuously
increases from June 2010 onwards.
B. Percentage increase in the value of total reserves of HDFC Bank over the previous month is the
highest in March.
C. In any month in the year 2010, the reserves with RBI is the highest for ICICI Bank among all
Indian banks.
D. None of these

Answer Key

1 D 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 D 9 D 10 A
11 A 12 C 13 A 14 D 15 C 16 A 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 B 23 D 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D
31 B 32 B 33 D 34 C 35 C 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 C
41 B 42 C 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 C 47 D 48 B 49 C 50 C
51 A 52 C 53 C 54 D 55 B 56 B 57 C 58 C 59 D 60 B
61 B 62 A 63 B 64 B 65 C 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 A 70 B
71 B 72 A 73 D 74 D 75 C 76 A 77 A 78 B 79 D 80 B
81 A 82 C 83 A 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 B 88 B 89 C 90 B
91 C 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 B 97 B 98 A 99 C 100 D

 

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