XAT / #XAT 2018

September 02, 2017 @ 12:48 PM

September 02, 2017 @ 12:48 PM

K. J. Somaiya Institute of Management Studies and Research, Mumbai

9 Easy Steps to register for SIMSR (Infographic)

Download Now

XAT 2017 Mock Test 2

XAT 2017 Mock Test - Section A - Verbal Ability And Logical Reasoning

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 1 and 2 that follow it.

Steven Sverdlik’s Motive and Rightness is an impressive and wide-ranging treatment of an important but relatively under-explored question: Can the motive of an action affect its deontic status? (That is to say, does an action’s
motive ever determine whether that action is right or wrong?) According to Sverdlik, the answer is yes: Motives matter. 

Motives Matter (MM): There is an action X such that if X were performed from one motive it would fall into one deontic category and if X were performed from another motive it would fall into a second deontic category in virtue of this difference in motives.In addition to defending the claim that motives matter, Sverdlik is also interested in figuring out which substantive moral theory can provide the most plausible explanation of the deontic relevance of motives.

His conclusion is that extrinsic consequentialism (about which more below) does the best job of providing the desired explanation.Consideration of this explanatory question makes up the bulk of the book (Chs. 3-7), with the first two chapters introducing terms and examples, and the last two chapters answering additional questions that arise along the way.

So. Do motives matter? Thinkers as diverse as Aristotle, Kant, and Mill have given (or implied) negative answers, but typically without providing much of an argument . And it does seem that an argument is needed, since almost
everyone will grant that there are plenty of moral judgments (e.g., judgments about a person’s character) that can be affected by motives. So why not moral judgments about an action’s deontic status? Moreover, there are some
motives — including malice, racism, and the desire for money — that do seem capable of making a difference to the deontic status of actions. For example (55-58), it seems that a racist motive might make refusing to shake
someone’s hand wrong when otherwise it wouldn’t be. (We don’t, however, want to say that motives always [or even typically] matter, because we want our conceptions of obligation, permissibility, and wrongness to be mostly
objective.)

1. Which of the following is most likely to be the source of this passage.

A. A book review B. A treatise on philosophy
C. A newspaper editorial. D. A debate on “Do motives matter?” 
E. An interview                                                                         (1 Marks)

2. Which of the following is most likely to be the author’s reply to the question “Do motives matter?”

A. Not at all; what is more important is the consequence rather than the motive of the action. B. The answer cannot be arrived at as the author is only commenting on somebody else’s opinion.
C. They might, as there are certain motives which seem to influence whether the action is right or wrong. D. They always do as moral judgements are always affected by motives.
E. Motives cannot be defined.                                                                         (2 Marks)

The Hawthorne effect has become a term referring to the tendency of some people to work harder and perform better when they are participants in an experiment; behavior is changed due to the attention subjects receive from the researchers, rather than because of any manipulation in dependent variables. In the clinical trial setting, the effect may be defined as the additional clinical response that results from increased attention provided by participation in the clinical trial. And in fact, improvement in rheumatoid arthritis clinical trials is often greater than improvement seen in the clinic. Interestingly, follow-up clinical trials consistently show durability of response. A recent study presented at this year’s American College of Rheumatology annual scientific meeting in Atlanta examined 264 rheumatoid arthritis patients, the goal to assess the effect, if any, of the Hawthorne effect, and hether the results of clinical trials are upwardly biased by this phenomenon. As for the results, it was found that all study measures improved during the trial, and worsened thereafter. These measures included assessments of activities of daily living, pain and fatigue. The Health Assessment Questionnaire score improved by 41.3% during the trial, but only by 16.5% when the endpoint was the post-trial result. Likewise, pain improved by 51.7% during the trial, and by 39.7% at the post-trial time point; the respective percentages for fatigue were 45.6% and 24.6%. By way of conclusion the authors of the study found that significant improvement noted in the clinical trial disappeared upon entry to a nonsponsored follow-up study. Such changes are apparently due to the Hawthorne effect. 

3. Identify the statement that is logically consistent with the contents of the paragraph

A. Participation in a clinical trial can often lead to short-term improvements in the patient’s condition due to
the attention and empathy she/he receives from her/his fellow sufferers.
B. The values of patient reported rheumatoid arthritis outcome variables in clinical trials are usually upwardly
biased; the effect of treatment is actually less than is observed and subsequently disseminated in articles
in journals and interviews in the media.
C. Patients tend to underreport improvements in their condition to ensure that they continue to receive close
attention from researchers.
D. Problems with the health assessment questionnaire used in the first clinical trial could have led to the
anomalous responses from patients.
E. In the context of the clinical trial, there was tangible improvement in the pain tolerance of patients due to
the Hawthorne effect.
                                                                        (3 Marks)

S : “This world” we call it, not without justifiable pathos, for many other worlds are conceivable and if discovered might prove more rational and intelligible and more akin to the soul than this strange universe which man has
hitherto always looked upon with increasing astonishment. The materials of experience are no sooner in hand than they are transformed by intelligence, reduced to those permanent presences, those natures and relations, which alone can live in discourse. Those materials, rearranged into the abstract summaries we call history or science, or pieced out into the reconstructions and extensions we call poetry or religion, furnish us with ideas of as many dream worlds as we please, many different and some conflicting each other, but all nearer to reality than is the actual chaos of perceptual experience, and some nearer to the heart’s desire.

B : All genuine questions must have one true answer and one only, all the rest being necessarily errors; in the second place, that there must be a dependable path towards the discovery of these truths; in the third place, that the true answers, when found, must necessarily be compatible with one another and form a single whole, for one truth cannot be incompatible with another-this we know a priori. We are doomed to choose, and every choice may entail an irreparable loss.

4. Which of the following statements is Blurb most likely to object to?

i. Dream worlds can be closer to reality than actual perceptual experience.

ii. The materials of experience are reduced to permanent presences and it is only these presences that can live in discourse.

iii. Poetry and religion are not likely to represent reality as reliably as concrete perceptual experience can.

iv. The ideas of dream worlds we create can conflict each other, but these ideas can be close to reality.

v. Discourse is incompatible

A. iv only B. iii and v
C. i and v D. i, ii and iv
E. i, ii and iii                                                                         (2 Marks)

5. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with Stake’s views above? 

A. It is necessary that reality conform to our desires since it is through our experiences that our desires are
created and thereby our sense of what is real.
B. The more rational a world, the closer it must be to reality.
C. Perceptual experience cannot contribute to a conceptualization of reality in its various manifestations. D. Dream worlds can serve as tools for conceptualizing reality since they do not incorporate raw perceptual experience.
E. The universe humans inhabit is contiguous with the human soul.                                                                         (2 Marks)
Click Here to Unlock Below Questions & SolutionsClick Here to Unlock Below Questions & Solutions

Five reviews of the recently published self-help book How to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital Age are reproduced below. The reviews and the reviewers are identified as indicated by the numbers.

A. Although it’s been 75 years since Carnegie’s landmark How To Win Friends and Influence People was published, his approach to communication is still relevant today. In this new book, readers are advised to consider the listener before speaking and to avoid criticism, condemnation, and complaint. Integrity is essential, and it’s important for one to admit wrongdoing or wrong speaking. Unlike most other self-help books, this updated book offers easy-to-employ strategies for lasting, productive progress in conversations as well as collaborations in business or personal life.

B. How to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital Age, like others of its ilk, perpetuates the idea of choosing who we want to be not considering that the imperative to ‘become yourself’ has begun to work against us, making us more anxious and more acquisitive rather than giving us more freedom.

C. Filled with sentences like “Today’s biggest enemy of lasting influence is the sector of both personal and corporate musing that concerns itself with the art of creating impressions without consulting the science of need ascertainment”, this unfortunate “revision and updating” of the Carnegie book is a big step backward— a step you can avoid making by buying the original book, which is actually very readable, whereas this “new” version is so full of managerial jargon that it’s incomprehensible to the ordinary reader.

D. Three-quarters of a century after the original, How to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital Age has hit the shelves. Out goes much of the old advice on how to impress and befriend people with faceto- face interaction or letters. Instead there is advice on how bloggers should interact with their readers and a caution about how celebrities mishandle their public wrongdoings. There is heavy and sometimes unnecessary use of managerial jargon. But that aside, this is a well-researched, informative book.

E. Dale Carnegie’s commonsense approach to communicating has endured for a century, touching millions and millions of readers. The only diploma that hangs in Warren Buffett’s office is his certificate from Dale Carnegie Training. Lee Iacocca credits Carnegie for giving him the courage to speak in public. Dilbert creator Scott Adams called Carnegie’s teachings “life-changing.”

6. According to some concerned authors, self-help books are no longer objectively appraised these days. For reviewers, the quality of a book does not matter anymore; it’s the work’s belonging to a certain genre that seals its fate in the reviewer’s book. Based on the reviews given, which reviewer is most likely to have objectively reviewed the book without being swayed by preconceived notions about the genre it belongs to?

7. Out of the five reviews, which one bases itself on an assumption about the sort of readership the book will attract?

8. Which reviewer eulogizes the author rather than critically review the book? 

9. The findings from a recent study indicate that neuroscience has the potential to explain what aesthetics is.The study was conducted on a group of artisans of dzi beads. One of the distinguishing features of these 
handcrafted dzi beads is the square white area on each bead. The study found that when the hippocampus (a part of the brain) is smaller in artisans, their use of this white area shrinks drastically. This study indicates
a relation between the area of the hippocampus and our sense of aesthetics.

Which of the following is an assumption made in the above argument?

I. Brain areas other than the hippocampus do not have a significant role to play in our sense of aesthetics.

II. The greater the white square area in each dzi bead, the more its aesthetic value.

III. A distinguishing feature of an aesthetically pleasing object will always add to its aesthetic value.

IV. The artisans had received identical training in craftsmanship before the study.

V. A direct correlation between the structure of the brain and aesthetics can be established based on the findings of a single study. 

A. Options I and II B. Option V only
C. Options II and IV D. Option III and IV
E. Option I and IV                                                                          (1 Marks)

10. This demographic has turned out to be the low-hanging fruit for our new product.

From the above sentence it can be inferred that

A. Options I and II B. Option V only
C. Options II and IV D. Option III and IV
E. Option I and IV                                                                          (1 Marks)

11. The governing body ________, and________, take such strong measures without justification.

The option that best fills in the blanks in the above sentence would be :

A. never had, never would B. never had, never should
C. never would have, never will D. never has, never will
E. never could, never did                                                                          (1 Marks)

12. Choose the odd one : 

A. Modest/Braggart B. Eloquent/ Irascible
C. Taciturn/Loquacious D. Panache/ Awkwardness
E. Respectful/ Flippant                                                                          (1 Marks)

13.  A new study found an unexpected link between the reported numbers of nonfatal and fatal injuries among construction workers. The findings show that states with low fatality rates seem to report higher numbers of nonfatal injuries. Conversely, states with higher rates of fatal injuries report lower numbers of nonfatal injuries. The study compared fatal and nonfatal construction-site injury reports across various states. Researchers chose to focus on the construction industry because it typically accounts for more fatal work accidents than any other sector.

Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph?

A. A study focused on workplace accident should take into account data for both fatal and non-fatal
injuries.
B. States with high fatality rates are underreporting their rates of nonfatal injuries.
C. The number of injuries per manhour of work done remains the same for each state. D. States with low fatality rates have more stringent work regulations in place.
E. Most injuries in the construction industry go unreported.                                                                          (1 Marks)

14. Choose the grammatically correct sentence from the options given below.

A. If only he had started work on the project in August, he will meet the deadline by now. B. If only he had been starting work on the project in August, he will meet the deadline by now.
C. If only he will start work on the project in August, he will meet the deadline by now. D. If only he had started work on the project in August, he would have met the deadline by now.
E. If only he had started work on the project in August, he shall have met the deadline by now.                                                                          (1 Marks)

15. Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

A. In an organization, it is not possible to reduce the fixed capital but the working capital may be decreased.

B. Hence one important method of increasing the return is to reduce all kinds of inventories stocked in warehouses.

C. According to our research studies, 90 percent of the working capital is blocked in the form of inventories of raw material, machinery spares, and semi-finished and finished goods.

D. One of the major corporate objectives in any organization is to improve the return on investment which is defined as return divided by investment where investment comprises fixed and working capital.

E. So, if we want to improve the return on investment, we have to reduce the working capital.

A. A-B-C-D-E B. D-A-B-E-C
C. C-A-B-D-E D. C-B-D-A-E
E. D-A-E-C-B                                                                          (1 Marks)

16. Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

I. But today’s money flows are not only vastly larger than portfolio investments ever were, they are also almost totally autonomous and uncontrollable by any national agency or in large measure by any national policy.

II. The money flows of traditional portfolio investment were the stabilizers of the international economy.

III. They flowed from countries of low short-term returns—low because of low interest rates, overvalued stock prices, or overvalued currency—into countries of higher short-term returns, thus restoring equilibrium.

IV. Transnational money flows can be seen as the successor to what bankers call ‘portfolio investments’, that is, investments made for the sake of (usually short-term) financial income such as dividends or interest.

V. Above all their economic impact is different.

A. II-III-I-V-IV B. IV-III-II-I-V
C. IV-II-III-I-V D. II-IV-III-I-V
E. I-II-III-V-IV                                                                          (1 Marks)

The different manners which custom teaches us to approve of in the different professions and states of life, do not concern things of the greatest importance. We expect truth and justice from an old man as well as from a young, from a clergyman as well as from an officer; and it is in matters of small moment only that we look for the distinguishing marks of their respective characters. With regard to these too, there is often some unobserved circumstance which, if it was attended to, would show us, that, independent of custom, there was a propriety in the character which custom had taught us to allot to each profession. We cannot complain, therefore, in this case, that the perversion of natural sentiment is very great. Though the manners of different nations require different degrees of the same quality, in the character which they think worthy of esteem, yet the worst that can be said to happen even here, is that the duties of one virtue are sometimes extended so as to encroach a little upon the precincts of some other.

17. Which of the following is the nearest to the central idea in the passage? 

A. Different manners and codes of conduct often overlap and encroach upon each other’s acceptance
levels and standards.
B. The greatest perversion of judgment produced by customs is in terms of the general style of character
and behavior attached to professions.
C. Acceptable standards of behavior and morals adjudged by individual opinions are not affected by
customs and traditions.
D. Different customs should not pervert people’s sentiments with regard to general character of conduct or
behavior.
E. Customs often corrupt people’s opinions in terms of acceptable standards of behavior and morals.                                                                          (1 Marks)

18. Which of the following statements disagree with the underlying views of the author of the passage?  

i. Human beings establish acceptable norms of behavior and manners based on their personal experiences and knowledge.

ii. Behavior and morals hold the same level of importance throughout the world.

iii. Customs are a mere reflection of state of mind of an individual and people adapt to a given custom differently.

iv. Some manners and behavioral norms are acceptable throughout different professions. 

A. i and ii B. i, ii and iii
C. ii and iv D. i and iii
E. i, ii and iv                                                                          (1 Marks)

Analyse the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

The rule that a theory which contradicts experience must be excluded from science and replaced by a better theory was invented by Aristotle. It was repeated emphatically by Newton, and it plays an important role in the methodology of modern sciences. However this rule is simply dogma since there is not a single theory that is in agreement with all the facts in its domain.

19.  To which of the following statements would the author of the passage agree the most? 

A. To say that theory A is better than theory B is to overlook the fact that different theories operate in different domains.  B. The fitness of a theory is determined by the number of real life applications it gives rise to.
C. Ancient Greek thought laid the foundations of modern science.  D. A theory is only as good as the number of facts it can successfully explain and any theory A that explains more facts and situations than theory B, including the facts and situations explained by theory B, should replace theory B. 
E. No scientific theory A should replace an older theory B just because the older theory contradicts certain experiences that theory B does not.                                                                          (2 Marks)

20.  Which of the following statements, if true, challenges the idea presented in the passage the most? 

A. To say that theory A is better than theory B is to overlook the fact that different theories operate in different domains.  B. The fitness of a theory is determined by the number of real life applications it gives rise to. 
C. Ancient Greek thought laid the foundations of modern science.  D. A theory is only as good as the number of facts it can successfully explain and any theory A that explains more facts and situations than theory B, including the facts and situations explained by theory B, should replace theory B.
E. No scientific theory A should replace an older theory B just because the older theory contradicts certain experiences that theory B does not.                                                                          (2 Marks)

21. The prime problem encountered by all materialist, determinist and self-interest theories, including selfish gene theories, is one of explaining, or even ________, apparent instances of spontaneity, creativity and altruism; the moment they are encountered, they are _______, transubstantiated into some other phenomenon than that which our senses witnessed and our minds ________ them to be; they are translated from what our experience says they are into something _______ with materialist preconceptions and the unfathomably complex is reduced to the readily comprehensible. 

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be : 

A. exempting, acknowledged, dreamt, categorized B. acknowledging, whisked away, judged, consistent 
C. testing, rooted for, felt, inconsistent D. proving, suspect, wanted, incompatible 
E. innovating, changed, desired, replete                                                                          (1 Marks)

22.  Perceptions depend on the worldview of a person. The worldview is the result of arranging perceptions into images by imagination. 

Assuming the above statement to be true, which of the statements logically follows from it? 

I. To understand a person’s worldview, we need to take his/her perceptions into account.

II. Every image is a consequence of our perception.

III. Imagination is required to develop a worldview.

IV. Even if there is a limit to the number of perceptions one can have, one’s imagination is not limited. 

A. I B. I, IV
C. I, III & IV D. I, III
E. I, II, III & IV                                                                          (1 Marks)

23.  Sociologists claim that the importance of parental connection in the early years has been hyped. Until now the popular notion was that if children do not spend the first three years of their lives in close contact with their parents their development suffers considerably. But experts now contend that children are resilient and continue to develop throughout their lives. 

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the sociologists’ argument?

A. Eighty-five percent of children who live in orphanages since birth grow up to be well-adjusted, outgoing adults later in life.  B. Researchers, who have examined the life histories of children who have grown up to be well-balanced adults despite many challenges in their lives, consistently find that the majority have had a stable, supportive relationship with at least one parent throughout their lives. 
C. Some child prodigies were cared for by people other than their parents when they were babies D. Children are known to forget bad experiences as their cognitive abilities are not completely developed when they are young. 
E. Children need to develop close connections during the first few years of their lives in order to grow up to be well-balanced individuals.                                                                          (1 Marks)

24.  Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the sociologists’ argument presented in the previous question?

A. Eighty-five percent of children who live in orphanages since birth grow up to be well-adjusted, outgoing adults later in life.  B. Researchers, who have examined the life histories of children who have grown up to be well-balanced adults despite many challenges in their lives, consistently find that the majority have had a stable, supportive relationship with at least one parent throughout their lives. 
C. Some child prodigies were cared for by people other than their parents when they were babies.  D. Children are known to forget bad experiences as their cognitive abilities are not completely developed when they are young.
E. Children need to develop close connections during the first few years of their lives in order to grow up to be well-balanced individuals.                                                                          (1 Marks)

25.  The secondary definitions of words used in texts add weight and circumstance to the matter dealt with, but only by extension of their manifold implications over the entire text and allows little circumstantial evidence to assess the implication of a singular usage of a word. 

The above statement implies the following except :

A. A word can be used to imply different things within the same text. B. The secondary definitions of words used in a text can help in interpreting the text. 
C. Secondary definitions of words used in a text do not indicate the subject matter of the text.  D. In some cases, the implications of a particular word used in a text need to be examined in relation to the entire text rather than in isolation.
E. It is possible to interpret the use of secondary definitions of words in a text by referring to the entire text.                                                                          (1 Marks)

26.  A wine shop owner finds that patrons spend more money in his store when classical music rather than recent hits are played in the background. The owner stocks up on more items in every price range and also starts playing classical tracks in his shop. 

Which of the following statements, if true, points to an oversight in the owner’s strategy? 

A. Patrons spend more time in the store when classical tracks are played than when recent hits are played.  B. Patrons in a specific age group are less responsive to classical tracks.  
C. Patrons buy more expensive wines when classical tracks are played, but the total number of items bought decreases.  D. The majority of patrons frequent the store because of the range of products available there. 
E. Consumers have different tastes in classical music.                                                                          (1 Marks)

 

Section B - Decision Making

27. Mr. Ahuja is an executive grade employee of CHEL and had recently been transferred to Delhi. While staying at the temporary accommodation, he had also applied for a permanent house (valid till he got a promotion or a transfer out of the city). Houses were allotted by the company (by the Administrative department, responsible for allotting accommodation to employees) on the basis of seniority and need. Mr. Ahuja was at the top of the list in both categories and he should have received a permanent accommodation within a week of his transfer. Meanwhile, two of his colleagues, junior to him, were allotted houses by the company. Rumour was that these colleagues were close to the Vice-President (Marketing) and had hence been allotted houses out-of-turn. Mr. Ahuja approached the Administrative Department with a complaint but was told that he would have to wait indefinitely until a house fell vacant.

Which of the following is a suitable course of action for Mr. Ahuja? 

A. Approach the Human Resources Department and lodge a complaint against the Administrative in-charge. B. Ask for a transfer back to the location he had just come from and lodge a complaint against the concerned
Vice-President.
C. Put in his resignation and lodge a complaint with the internal ethics committee. D. Lodge a complaint with his superior and the Vice-President (Operations), under whom the functioning of
the Administrative Department falls.
E. Send an anonymous letter to the media stating the details of his complaint.                                                                          (1.5 Marks)

28.Which of the following, if true, can be a valid reason for the out of turn allotment being sanctioned by the company?

A. Strong backing from the employees’ bosses B. Better performance of the employees who were allotted the houses
C. A medical issue that required immediate allotment of a house D. Rejection of Mr. Ahuja’s application due to incorrect information provided
E. Motives cannot be defined.                                                                         (1.5 Marks)

Once a household name, Dutch consumer electronics major Rexco has slipped over the years to become an ‘also ran’. Its repeated attempts to rekindle its past performance have failed.

In April 2010, when Rexco announced its plan to outsource its TV business to Rideocon Industries, the decision came as no surprise. The five-year pact, under which Rideocon is handling Rexco’s TV manufacturing,  distribution and sales in India, was aimed at restoring the profitability of the TV business. Rexco was once a dominant player in the segment, with a market share of around 15 per cent in the early 1990s, but business eroded as Korean and Page 2 MOCK XAT Indian brands grabbed market share. As volumes fell, the company struggled to run its TV factory in Pune efficiently. It took the third-party route to manufacture CRTs and imported LCD screens, but this didn’t help. Then the company licensed the unit to Rideocon.

Through the arrangement, Rexco would get royalty income based on turnover. Rideocon’s economies of scale in manufacturing and its strong distribution network would help the Rexco brand reach more outlets and reduce the
cost per unit. 

The downfall of Rexco’s consumer business - especially TV - began in the late 1990s. The reasons were beyond he control of the management. The entry of Korean organisations such as Damsung and CG started eating into the market share of older players such as Tonida, Rideocon and Rexco. Rexco decided to stick to its usual strategy: relying on technology rather than strengthening distribution and marketing. It didn’t want to compete with
the Koreans on pricing and thought the superior technology of its products, be it picture or sound quality, would stand out. “We took a conscious decision not to cut prices,” says Kris Ramachandran, former CEO of Rexco
Electronics, India.

In no time, the strategy flopped. The slow-moving Rexco couldn’t sustain its top position and its market share fell to some 3.5 per cent by 1999. After losing its relevance in the consumer business, Rexco did take some steps to address the situation.

In early 2000, it roped in DwC to revamp its consumer products portfolio, set up new processes and overhaul the supply chain. After this, it launched a new range of CRT TVs under the brand name EyeQ. “The idea was to
Indianise products to suit local tastes,” says Rajeev Karwal, who headed Rexco’s consumer electronics division in 1999. The new sets had 300 channels, as opposed to 60 channels in older ones. High-end plasma TVs were also introduced. “The earlier TVs were more suited for Europeans, who like subtle colours. Indians, on the other hand, have a fondness for saturation and bright colours. The later versions of our TVs focused on targeting this issue,” says S. Venkataramani, Non-Executive Director, Rexco India.

“Rexco was strong in innovation, but lacked aggressive marketing,” says Karwal. “When I joined Rexco, I brought in fresh blood to challenge internal systems. A country like India requires go-to-market strategies. We tied up with dealers and proved that the technologies of our Korean counterparts are no superior to ours.”

Rexco also rejigged its skills portfolio. Its workforce went from more than 11,000 in the early 1990s to around 3,500 by 2005. From six legal entities, it became one legal entity. “The focus was on reshaping the company to
ensure sustainable, profitable growth,” says Ramachandran. A 2001 survey by ad agency JWT further helped Rexco improve its brand image. Although the brand was iconic in India for several decades with customers associating the transistor radio and incandescent bulbs with the Rexco name, the survey found that people did not associate the brand with high-end technology.

So from 2001 on, most of Rexco’s ad campaigns emphasised the advanced features of its products. Gradually, the company reclaimed some lost ground. The TV market share went up to eight per cent in 2002. Although Rexco sustained its TV market share at around six per cent in the following years, it lost the way when it shifted focus from TVs to low margin products such as DVD players, MP3 players and headphones. MOCK XAT Page 3
When the consumer electronics and appliances market exploded - it went from Rs 20,000 crore in 2005 to Rs 33,000 crore in 2010 - Rexco’s revenues from the consumer business declined - from nearly Rs 1,091 crore in
2005 to Rs 659 crore in 2010. The revenue mix got overhauled. From over 42 per cent of turnover in 2005, the consumer business fell to some 28 per cent in 2010.

According to some senior executives, this was partly because the CRT division was given less importance at a time when the CRT market was growing in India. “Since the parent company exited the CRT industry in 2006, the
Indian arm, too, showed little interest in the business, and it affected growth momentum,” says A.D.A. Ratnam, President of Rexco India’s consumer lifestyle division. While the consumer business hit a brick wall, exponential growth in the lighting and health care segments kept Rexco going. In lighting, the company has historically been the leader, with a market share of more than 30 per cent - more than twice that of its nearest competitors, Bajaj Electricals, Havells, Wipro Consumer Care and Lighting, and Surya Roshni.

“Whether it’s CFL or LED technology, Rexco is a pioneer in bringing lighting solutions to India,” says Nirupam Sahay, President of Rexco’s lighting division. “We have a big distribution network and reach out to one million
electrical and non-electrical outlets.”

29. Which of the following would best help explain why Rexco faced a downfall in its consumer business?

A. By refusing to reduce the prices of its products, Rexco sent out incorrect brand perceptions to its consumers. B. Despite its technological strengths, the company failed to market its products well, which hurt its brand
perception.
C. The company was not quick on the uptake and had too many process bottlenecks. D. Korean majors came with a clear cut entry strategy and were aggressive in retaining market share.
E. Damsung and CG ate into the market share of three older players including Rexco.                                                                          (1.5 Marks)

30. Which of the following has not been indicated as a factor that helps gain quick share of the market?

A. Ensuring economies of scales in manufacturing B. Setting up a strong distributor network in a quick span of time
C. Introducing sales promotions and discounts to attract customers D. Introducing indianised products to attract the local consumer
E. Damsung and CG ate into the market share of three older players including Rexco.                                                                          (1.5 Marks)

31. Which of the following, if true, would help explain why Rexco’s plan of outsourcing its TV business to Rideocon will not have positive results?

A. Attrition rates are very high at Rideocon. B. Rideocon has a superior distribution network as compared with Rexco.
C. Rideocon does not have a good reputation on the outsourcing front. D. Rideocon has faced management problems in the past.
E. Rideocon is an organisation known more for its sales strategies than its marketing strategies.                                                                          (1 Marks)

32. Which of the following can be inferred to have been the biggest challenge for Rexco? 

A. Bringing out a marketing strategy that would help challenge the Korean majors B. Ensuring that losses due to reduction in market share did not adversely affect the employees
C. Rolling out multiple strategies to overcome its problems D. Reducing the workforce by more than half with no disruption in manufacturing
E. Offering products that would suit the local tastes and the changing times                                                                          (1 Marks)

33. In a comparative analysis of Rexco and Korean companies, which of the following options is correct and should be taken into consideration? 

A. Rexco initially used its global strategy in the Indian market scenario whereas Korean manufacturers used an India specific approach. B. While Korean brands invested in manufacturing in India, Rexco closed its plants.
C. Rexco gained comparative advantage because of its investment in the CRT business. D. Rexco’s strategy today is to become a leader in health care, and retain its top position in lighting with new technologies such as LED.
E. Rexco concentrated more on diversifying product offerings whereas the Korean manufacturers offered a minimal product line.                                                                          (1 Marks)

When Narendra Modi took over as chief minister of Gujarat in October 2001, he found the state’s power situation grim. The Gujarat State Electricity Board, or GSEB, had posted a loss of Rs 2,246 crore for 2000-01, on
revenues of Rs 6,280 crore. Interest costs alone were Rs 1,227 crore. Transmission and distribution, or T&D, losses were a substantial 35.27 per cent, and load shedding was frequent. GSEB had no funds to add generation
capacity on its own.

Reforming the GSEB, thus, became one of Modi’s top priorities. “He feared that a bankrupt power utility could derail his vision for the state,” says Saurabh Patel, Gujarat’s Industries and Power Minister, then as now. “He knew
electricity is crucial for growth.”

Modi’s first step was to identify a bureaucrat capable of taking on the enormous challenge. He chose Manjula Subramaniam, a Gujarat cadre officer, who had been joint secretary in the prime minister’s office from 1993 to 1998, playing a key role in the country’s liberalisation, and appointed her Chairperson of GSEB and Principal Secretary, Energy and Power.

Subramaniam quickly realised that GSEB was too large an entity to be managed effectively. But she did not rush into unbundling it. Instead, she initially concentrated on two areas: bolstering the power utility’s finances and
building employee morale. Discovering that GSEB had secured loans at interest rates of 18 per cent or more, she sought debt restructuring, convincing banks and financial institutions to lower their rates, which resulted in savings of Rs 500 crore in 2002-03.

34. Which of the following courses of action would Subramanian have taken to increase the power generation capacity of the state?

A. Reduce the load on the electricity board by borrowing power from other states. B. Renegotiate power price agreements already signed with private players.
C. Reduce the power consumption within the state and indulge in power cuts when needed. D. Bring in partnerships to increase power generation and to ensure funding of new projects.
E. Improve the technology being used by the power station to ensure no wastage and loss of power.                                                                          (1.5 Marks)

35. Which of the following would not have added to the woes of the power sector in Gujarat? 

A. Leakages in distribution. B. Power thefts
C. Large power bill arrears D. Unmetered power supply
E. Lack of awareness                                                                          (1.5 Marks)

Ontong’s Express Pizza Delivery Service guarantees delivery of hot pizzas within 45 minutes of placing the order, failing which they offer the order for free. After an order is placed it takes exactly 20 minutes for the order to get ready for delivery. A pizza delivery boy has to deliver orders of six people – Arjun, Boman, Crystal, Dhiraj, Ekansh and Fiza – all of whom placed an order at the same time. The delivery boy travels on a bike at an uniform speed of 30 km/hr and it takes him exactly 2 minutes to deliver the pizza and complete the transaction at each person’s place. There are no other factors which can affect the average travelling speed of the delivery boy. The table given below shows the distance (in km) between the places of the six people. E.g. distance between the places of Arjun and Boman is 3 km.

  Arjun Boman Crystal Dhiraj Ekansh Fiza
Arjun 0 3 7 1 8 5
Boman 3 0 4 5 2 7
Crystal 7 4 0 4 7 2
Dhiraj 1 5 4 0 6 3
Ekansh 8 2 7 6 0 4
Fiza 5 7 2 3 4 0

The table given below shows the distance (in km) between the Delivery Unit and the places of the six people.

  Arjun Boman Crystal Dhiraj Ekansh Fiza
Delivery Unit 3 2 3 4 4 1

 

36.  If the delivery boy takes the shortest possible route, covering all the six places, then how many of the six people will get their order for free?

A. 4 B. 3
C. 2 D. 1
E. 0                                                                          (3 Marks)

37.  The delivery boy goes to Ekansh’s place immediately after going to Dhiraj’s place. Also, the road connecting the places of Arjun and Dhiraj is blocked. What is the minimum time taken by the delivery boy to deliver pizzas at all the six places and reach back the Delivery Unit? 

A. 42 minutes B. 54 minutes
C. 48 minutes D. 50 minutes
E. 62 minutes                                                                          (3 Marks)

38. If Arjun is the first person and Ekansh the last person among the six to receive the order, then what is the minimum time taken by the delivery boy to deliver pizzas at all the six places and reach back the DeliveryUnit?

A. 50 minutes B. 54 minutes
C. 62 minutes D. 48 minutes
E. None of these                                                                          (2 Marks)

Akshay, Bindu, Chandar, Divya, Ekta, Fatima, Giri and Harsil are eight people who form four distinct husbandwife couples. Akshay, Bindu and Chandar are males while Divya, Ekta and Fatima are females. The couples arrived at a party in a certain order, and no two couples arrived at the same time.
It is also known that:

I. Bindu came before both Ekta and Fatima.

II. Chandar came after both Akshay and Fatima.

III. Divya came after Giri.

39.  If Harsil and Giri form a couple, then how many of the following statements cannot be true?
(i) Fatima is married to Akshay.

(ii) Divya came after Fatima.

(iii) Ekta doesn’t belong to the couple that was the last to arrive.

(iv) Harsil came after Bindu.

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. All the four statements                                                                          (1 Marks)

40.  If Akshay came before Bindu, then which two people among the given options cannot form a couple?

A. Akshay and Harsil B. Fatima and Harsil
C. Chandar and Ekta D. Bindu and Divya
E. More than one of the above                                                                          (1 Marks)

Udanabad is a small country in which just four cities have an Airport –Mumbhai, Punhe, Dehli and Kohlkata –and flights operate on all six distinct direct routes –Mumbhai-Punhe, Punhe-Kohlkata etc. There are five airlines –Air-1, Air-2, Air-3, Air-4 and Air-5 –in the country. None of the five airlines operates on all the six direct routes. At least one airline operates on each direct route. It is also known that:

(i) Air-1 connects Mumbhai with exactly two other cities directly. It operates on the maximum number of direct routes among the five airlines.

(ii) Each airline, except Air-3, has operations in all the four cities. Air-3 operates on exactly three direct routes which don’t include the Mumbhai-Kohlkata route.

(iii) Air-2 connects each city with exactly two other cities directly. It doesn’t operate on the direct route between Mumbhai and Kohlkata.

(iv) Air-4 and Air-5 operate on an equal number of direct routes. No other pair of airlines operate on an equal number of direct routes. Air-4 operates on Mumbhai-Dehli route and Air-5 operates on Dehli-Kohlkata route.

41.  Air-2 doesn’t operate on which of the following direct routes?

A. Mumbhai-Dehli B. Punhe-Dehli
C. Dehli-Kohlkata D. Punhe-Kohlkata
E. None of the above                                                                          (2 Marks)

42. Exactly three airlines operate on the Dehli-Kohlkata direct route. The number of airlines operating on the Mumbhai-Dehli direct route is not the highest among the six routes. Among the given options, on which direct route is the number of operating airlines different from the rest three routes?

A. Mumbhai-Dehli B. Dehli-Kohlkata
C. Punhe-Kohlkata D. Punhe-Dehli
E. It is same for all the four pairs                                                                          (3 Marks)

43.  The number of airlines operating on Mumbhai-Dehli direct route is equal to that on Punhe-Dehli direct route. On which of the following direct routes is the number of operating airlines more than three? 

A. Punhe-Kohlkata B. Dehli-Kohlkata
C. Mumbhai-Punhe D. Mumbhai-Dehli
E. More than one of the above                                                                          (3 Marks)

XYZ is a private firm that deals in the manufacture and supply of arms in Israel. The organisation has a strict leave policy as they are short-staffed and in one of the most volatile situations in the world. Recently demand for arms, from the Israeli army, had risen because of tensions between Israel and a military group that represents Palestine. In view of this situation, the organisation had stated (at the beginning of the calendar year) that for the coming year, employees would be granted annual leave of 60 days instead of the usual 90 days. Employees were to be given a monetary compensation for the 30 days leave that they had to forego this year. No employee would be allowed any extra leave unless it was for an emergency. The new leave policy was necessary to ensure that there was no disruption in the work of the organisation. Two personnel from this organisation recently came to the department head as they wanted to request for leave. Both the personnel wanted to proceed on leave for their respective marriages. One personnel was left with 7 days balance leave and another with 17 days balance leave. Both however requested for a month’s leave as a special case as they were to get married. Besides, travel time would leave the former with 5 days of actual leave and the latter with 13 days of actual leave. The deputy head of the department also sided with the two personnel stating that they be granted leave for a month.

44. Which of the following is the best decision that the department head can take?

A. Grant only 7 and 17 days leave respectively to the two personnel. B. Grant the two personnel leave as requested for a month.
C. Grant leave for a week extra to each of the two employees in addition to their leave balance. D. Grant 15 days leave to each of the two employees.
E. Grant leave of 20 days to each of the two employees, while reducing the leave balance of two other employees in turn.                                                                          (1 Marks)

45. How best could the department head justify his decision to the rest of the personnel?

A. Stating that the request for extra leave was for a celebration and not an emergency and hence did not fall
within the leave policy of the organisation
B. Stating that the extra leave granted was on compassionate grounds and that the two personnel would be
made to work extra hours every week once they joined back work
C. Stating that each employee of the department was to contribute two extra hours of work for one week
in order to ensure that no delay in manufacturing took place due to the week’s extra leave granted to the
two employees
D. Stating that the department would not suffer greatly if leave was given for 15 days to the former (8 extra
days) and 15 days to the latter (2 reduced days of leave)
E. Stating that in a matter of consensus, two other employees had volunteered to forego the additional days
of leave that was granted to the personnel getting married
                                                                         (1 Marks)

The year 2000 could have been decisive. That was when the board of directors at Eicher Motors decided to either shut down or sell off Royal Enfield - the company’s Chennai-based motorcycle division, which manufactured the
iconic Bullet motorbikes. For all its reputation, the sales of the bike was down to 2,000 units a month against the plant’s installed capacity of 6,000; losses had been mounting for years. Though the bikes had diehard followers,
there were also frequent complaints about them - of engine seizures, snapping of the accelerator or clutch cables, electrical failures and oil leakages. Many found them too heavy, difficult to maintain, with the gear lever inconveniently positioned and a daunting kick-start.

Just one person stood up to the board, insisting Royal Enfield should get another chance. He was Siddhartha Lal, a third generation member of the Delhi-based Lal family, promoters of the Eicher group of companies. Lal, then 26, was an unabashed Bullet fan: he even rode a Bullet while leading the baraat (procession) to his wedding venue, instead of the traditional horse. “The board agreed to give me a chance,” says Lal. “It was not because of its
confidence in me, but because the business was doing so badly it could hardly get any worse.”

Lal felt Royal Enfield could still be saved. The bike had its reputation, a cult following, an instantly recognisable build, and aspirational value. Changes had to be made to keep up with the times and make the bike more acceptable, and therein lay the problem. Royal Enfield fans liked the bikes exactly the way they had always been. “We needed changes to attract new customers but by doing so risked losing existing ones,” says R.L. Ravichandran, whom Lal brought in as CEO in 2005 as part of his revival effort. Ravichandran had earlier worked with both TVS Motor and Bajaj Auto. “We were in a peculiar situation,” he adds.

46. Which of the following would be a change in the Royal Enfield that would adversely affect the customer base?

A. Introducing a new engine with better design and fewer components B. Altering the position of the gears
C. Changing the design to make the shape of the bike sleek and aerodynamic D. Improving the overall quality of components used in the bike
E. Improving the engine quality to introduce greater fuel efficiency                                                                          (1 Marks)

47. Which of the following best sums up the challenge that Royal Enfield faced in 2000?

A. Changing consumer perceptions so that new customers could be attracted B. Not compromising the individuality of the bike
C. Maintaining the cult following of the bike D. Expanding the market segment of the Royal Enfield to include the leisure segment
E. Modernising the bikes without taking away their unique identity                                                                          (1 Marks)

Sarah has recently been hired as a creative director at one of the most sought after agencies in the country. It is her dream job. She is leading an award winning team that is working on the agency’s largest and most lucrative
account—a world renowned women’s fashion brand. Her team is currently under a great deal of pressure to prepare a dynamite campaign for a new product introduction—a new line of fashion for teenage girls. Since sales
of its flagship women’s fashion brand have been stagnant, the client believes that this campaign is crucial to the continued viability of its business. Furthermore, the client has hinted that if the campaign is not an unqualified
success (that is, truly sensational), then the entire account will go out for competitive bidding, and a new agency will likely be selected. Sarah is eager for the team to continue its winning record under her leadership, and she knows that losing this account would be devastating to the agency.

However, an issue related to the campaign has begun to concern her. Specifically, the models selected for the campaign are young and exceedingly thin. Sarah recently has read some research regarding the negative effects
that ultra thin female images in the media can have on teenage girls and their conceptions of beauty, and she feels uncomfortable about the images of beauty portrayed in the campaign. When she questioned one of her staff about this, he told her that the client liked this type of model, which had been used in its previous campaigns, and that it was the client’s prerogative to use any type of model he wanted. Sarah knows that any questions that she raises could have negative effects on her staff. Since she is new, Sarah very much wants to win the respect and confidence of her team. She does not want to tinker with the team’s winning formula, and she does not want to do anything to constrain their creativity.

48. Which of the following is the best course of action for Sarah? 

A. Sarah should control her misgivings and continue to prepare the campaign according to the client brief. B. Since the average teenage girl is thin, the use of young and extremely thin models is perfect for the
campaign; Sarah should follow the client brief.
C. Sarah should take her team into confidence and ask them to go against the client brief and prepare a
campaign that takes away the focus from the models and keeps it on the garments.
D. Sarah should approach the client and make them aware of the dangers of sending an unhealthy message
to young and impressionable teenage girls.
E. Sarah should subtly convince the client and her team to create a campaign that maintains the focus on the
garments and not on the models.
                                                                         (1 Marks)

49. The campaign was released a week ago and despite the best efforts from Sarah and the team, it receives an initial lukewarm response. How should Sarah justify the response to the client?

A. The campaign has been released during admissions season and the response from the teenage girls will soon gather strength. B. Fashion trends have recently changed and the new product introduction does not fall in line with these trends.
C. Teenagers always take time to respond to a brand campaign and it will be a few weeks before the client will see results. D. The brand campaign has been hindered due to protests from women’s groups on the use of young and underweight models.
E. The new product line has been slammed by some fashion critics and hence teenagers have not responded positively to the campaign.                                                                          (1 Marks)


Section C - Data Interpretation and Quantitative Ability

50.  ‘A’is the sum of the squares of first ‘n’natural numbers. How many values of ‘n’are possible for which A will be divisible by 7? (Given that n < 100). 

A. 40 B. 39
C. 42 D. 44
E. None of these                                                                          (2 Marks)

51.  If ‘a’is an odd natural number and ‘b’is an even natural number, what is the total number of solutions of the equation ab = 2a + b + 598? 

A. 16 B. 12
C. 5 D. 6
E. 8                                                                          (2 Marks)

52.  Let g(a, b) be a function defined on the set of positive integers such that

g(2, 2) = 2

g(a + 1, b) = g(a, b) + 2a

g(a, b + 1) = g(a, b) –2b

for all positive integers a and b.

Find g(1007, 1006). 

A. 2014 B. 2012
C. –2014 D. –2012
E. None of these                                                                          (3 Marks)

53.  Sides of a triangle are a2+ a + 1, 2a + 1 and a2 –1, where ‘a’is an integer. What is the largest possible angle of such a triangle?

A. 90° B. 120°
C. 150° D. 60°
E. Cannot be determined                                                                          (1 Marks)

54.  In a sequence, a1, a2, a3. . . an, each term is an integer greater than or equal to 0. Also, each term startingwith the third is the difference of the preceding two terms. (an+2= an–an+1 for n = 1). The sequence terminates at aif an–1– an< 0. For example, 120, 71, 49, 22, 27 is a sequence offive terms. Find the positive integer A so that the sequence 150, A, …... has the maximum possible numberof terms. 

A. 90 B. 92
C. 93 D. 94
E. 96                                                                          (3 Marks)

55.  Two cars race around a circular track at constant speeds starting from the same point. If they travel in opposite directions, they meet in every 35 seconds. If they travel in the same direction, they meet in every 3 minutes and 30 seconds. How long would the faster car take to complete one round of the circular track? 

A. 96 s B. 84 s
C. 60 s D. 72 s
E. None of these                                                                          (1 Marks)

There is a park which is in the shape of a right-angled triangle. A tower is situated at the mid-point of the largest edge of the park. The two perpendicular edges of the park subtend angles of 60°and 90°at the top of the tower. Area of the park is  2592 √2 m2 .

56.  What is the height of the tower? 

A. 72√2 m B. 36√2 m
C. 36 m D. 72 m
E. None of these                                                                          (1 Marks)

57.  There is an insect at the vertex where perpendicular edges of the park meet and wants to crawl its way to the foot of the tower. Find the minimum time (in minutes) for which the insect has to trek in order to reach the foot of the tower, if it can only crawl along the edges of the park with speed of 20*10-2 m/s. 

A. 3 (2+√3) B. 3 (1+√2)
C. 12 D. 3 (3+2√2)
E. 18                                                                          (2 Marks)

58.  On a leisure trip to Las Vegas, Rashmi went to a casino where she decided to play a game of rolling three unbiased die simultaneously. Rules of the game were as follows:

(i) Participation charge was Rs.200.

(ii) The amount paid to a participant at the end of each round was associated with the price factor(p), given as:

P= |(x-3)(y-1)(z-1)|

where x, y and z are numbers turned up while rolling the die.

If p≤ 2, Rs.300 was paid, else no amount was paid.

What is the probability that Rashmi will make a profit? 

A. 45.83% B. 44.44%
C. 41.67% D. 45%
E. None of these                                                                          (3 Marks)

The line graph given below shows the percentage increase in CPI of five products, one from each of the five sectors –FMCG, Medical, Education, Real Estate and Recreation –at the end of each quarter of the financial year 2010-2011. A financial year starts on 1st April and ends on 31st March next year.

Increase in cost (in Rs.) of a product at the end of a quarter compared to the cost at the end of the previous quarter x/100*Cost of the product at the end of the previous quarter.
(where ‘x’is the percentage increase in CPI at the end of the current quarter)

59.  If the cost of the product from Education sector at the end of the last quarter of the financial year 2009-2010 was Rs.10 lakhs, then what was the approximate average quarterly increase in cost (in Rs.) of the product over the four quarters of the financial year 2010-2011?

A. 20,000 B. 33,000
C. 42,000 D. 45,000
E. 48,000                                                                          (3 Marks)

60.  The increase in the cost of the product from FMCG sector at the end of the first quarter of the financial year 2011-2012 was Rs. 20,000 and the percentage increase in CPI was 3.2%. Find the approximate increase in the cost (in Rs.) of the product at the end of the last quarter of the financial year 2010-2011. 

A. 7,800 B. 12,500
C. 14,400 D. 9,800
E. 8,400                                                                          (3 Marks)

61.  A pole situated on the ground is supported by two wires. One end of each wire is attached to the top of the pole and other end is fixed to the ground at the points P1 and P2. The distance between points P1 and P2 is 20 meters and the line joining Pand P2 does not pass through the foot of the pole. The wires fixed to P1 and P2 make angles 30°and 60°with the ground respectively. The height of the pole is ‘h’meters.

Which of the following statements is true? 

A. 5√3 ≤ h ≤ 10√3 B. 10 < h < 20
C. 5√3 < h < 10√3 D. 10 ≤ h ≤ 20
E. None of these                                                                          (3 Marks)

Question No. 62 is followed by two statements labeled as I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below.  

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. Statement I and statement II together are sufficient, but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question. D. Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.                                                                          (3 Marks)

The Air Force of a country called Ladakabad maintains two air bases – one at Jambala and the other at Dagra. Each squadron at either air base consists of 12 fighter jets and it embarks on an operation only at full strength. During a war an air base can be used in any of the two modes – Attack Mode or Defence Mode. In Attack Mode a squadron can fly over enemy territory continuously for 8 hours while in Defence mode a squadron can fly over its own territory continuously for 12 hours. After flying continuously for 8/12 hours (called a flight) a squadron takes replenishment for fighter jets lost during the combat.

The table given below shows the observations made during a war that took place between Ladakabad and its neighbouring country Jhagdalupur in the year 2010. “Covered Area” under Attack Mode indicates the percentage territory of Jhagdalupur attacked by one squadron during its flight while under Defence Mode it indicates the percentage territory of Ladakabad defended by one squadron during its flight. “Fighters Jets lost” indicates the percentage of fighter jets lost per squadron per flight during the war.

63.  At some point during the war, for a period of 24 hours, the entire enemy terrritory (Jhagdalupur) was under attack while the entire territory of Ladakabad was also being defended at the same time by the two air bases. The number of fighter jets lost by the two air bases during this period was at least

A. 144 B. 104
C. 128 D. 120
E. 160                                                                          (3 Marks)

64.  At some point during the war, for a period of 48 hours, five squadrons from Jambala and the rest from Dagra air base were continuously defending the entire territory of Ladakabad. If no squadrons from either Jambala or Dagra air base were attacking the enemy during these 48 hours, what was the number of fighter jets lost by the two air bases during this period? 

A. 66 B. 76
C. 90 D. 102
E. 112                                                                          (2 Marks)

65.  During the war, Dagra air base was damaged completely and could not be used any further. Thirty squadrons were still available at Jambala air base. For how many more hours would Jambala air base be able to defend the entire territory of Ladakabad?

A. 108 hours B. 120 hours
C. 90 hours D. 96 hours
E. None of these                                                                          (2 Marks)

66.  The sum of the digits of a number is subtracted from the number itself. The result lies between 275 to 300. How many such numbers are possible?

A. 12 B. 18
C. 20 D. 27
E. None of these                                                                          (2 Marks)

67.  Mr. Meter was going from Kashmir to Kanyakumari by his car. When he started his journey the odometer of his car showed a reading of 00000 km. On the way Mr. Meter realized that the odometer of his car was not functioning properly and displayed ‘δ’in between 4 and 5 (i.e. after 34, first it showed 3δand then 35). Odometer of the car at the end of journey showed a reading of 009δ5 km. Find the distance traveled by Mr. Meter during the entire journey.

A. 1149 km B. 594 km
C. 1171 km D. 1271 km
E.  716 km                                                                          (1 Marks)

68.  A hacker is trying to steal highly confidential information from the Department of Defense system that uses a nine –step security process. Security at each level of the system can be bypassed by entering a numeric sequence whose sum is equal to the number of that security level. A traitor has informed the hacker that the desired numeric sequence only consisted of digits 1 or 2 and security levels are numbered 1 to 9. The numeric sequence to each level is unique. What is the maximum possible number of attempts that will take for the hacker to break the security of all the levels? 

A. 55 B. 89
C. 512 D. 256
E. 142                                                                          (3 Marks)

69.  Peculiarities of ‘Chalata- Firata’tribe are: neither an outsider can enter nor a resident can leave the tribe and no one dies unless he/she is killed by someone else in the tribe. There are exactly seven beggars in the tribe. Three of them are notorious criminals and killers; they rob and kill those who give alms to at least one of them on the same day. Rubbagubba, a resident of the tribe, gives alms to exactly three of the seven beggars on 23rd of a month. What is the probability that Rubbagubba would not be alive on 24th of the month if there is no other killer in the tribe except the three?                                                                                                                                              (1 Mark)

In Andher Nagri, only three different newspapers –HT, ET and Hindu –are in circulation. The people of Andher Nagri read newspapers as per the distribution pattern shown in the following bar charts. The data set given below is for the year 2009 only.

In the year 2009, all the people living in Andher Nagri read newspaper(s) and nobody bought two copies of the same newspaper.

70.  If the number of men who read all the three newspapers was double the number of women who read at least two newspapers and the total number of women in Andher Nagri in 2009 was 1,000, what was the number of men who read at most two newspapers in 2009?

A. 16,600 B. 8,270
C. 12,540 D. 14,400
E. None of these                                                                          (1 Marks)

71.  The circulation of ‘Hindu’was banned in Andher Nagri. 60% of the males reading only Hindu switched to ET while the rest switched to HT. 50% of the females reading only Hindu switched to ET while the rest switched to HT. Anybody who used to read any other newspaper along with Hindu simply stopped reading Hindu. If the total number of men was 20,000 and the total number of women was 15,000 in Andher Nagri, find the number of copies of ET in circulation in Andher Nagri after the implementation of ban.

A. 19,150 B. 19,330
C. 22,330 D. 6,150
E. 21,250                                                                          (2 Marks)

72.  In 2009, men’s population was 10,000 and next year it increased by 25%. This resulted in an increase of 20% in circulation of ET among men and an increase of 30% in circulation of HT among men. The number of men reading Hindu remained the same. What could be the minimum number of men who did not read any newspaper in 2010? (The reading pattern of the existing readers did not change in 2010.)

A. 60 B. 80
C. 240 D. 140
E. 120                                                                          (3 Marks)

73

Question No. 74 is followed by two statements labeled as I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below.

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. Statement I and statement II together are sufficient, but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question. D. Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Neither statement I nor statement II is necessary to answer the question.                                                                          (3 Marks)

74.  Let ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral such that one of its diagonals is a diameter of the circle. If AB = 72cm, find the measure of the diagonal which is not the diameter of the circle.

I. Radius of the circle is 45 cm.

II. Side opposite to AB is of length 45√2 cm.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    (2 Marks)

Mr. Moneywaala was a keen investor. He possessed shares of two companies – A and B. He divided all his shares among his five sons – Pawan, Qureshi, Rohit, Sagar and Tanmay in a manner that no son got less than 2.5% of the total number of shares with him. Two of his sons got only Company A shares, two got only Company B shares while one son got both Company A and Company B shares. The number of shares received by Pawan and Sagar were 144 and 184 respectively. No son got fewer shares than Pawan.

The number of shares received by the son who got both Company A and Company B shares was 15/4 times of the 4 total number of shares received by the two sons who got only Company A shares. It was also equal to one-fourth of the total number of shares received by the two sons who got only Company B shares.

75.  Which share(s) did Pawan get?

A. Company A B. Company B
C. Both (A) and (B) D. Either (A) or (B)
E. Cannot be determined                                                                          (2 Marks)

76.  What was the total number of shares distributed by Mr. Moneywaala among his five sons? 

A. 5,724 B. 5,760
C. 5,640 D. 5,688
E. Cannot be determined                                                                          (2 Marks)

77.  What was the number of shares received by the son who got both Company A and Company B shares? 

A. 848 B. 1,094
C. 1,080 D. 1,436
E. None of these                                                                          (1 Marks)

78. Given that product of a two-digit number AB and 74 is a three-digit number EEE, where A, B and E are distinct non zero digits. What is the value of ‘E’?

A. 9 B. 7
C. 6 D. 8
E. None of these                                                                          (2 Marks)

Section D  - General Knowledge

79. Which of the following is not an element/factor of Human Development Index?

A. Life expectancy at birth B. Adult literacy rate
C. Per capita income D. Percentage of senior citizens
E. All of the above                                                                         

80. Which of the following retail Groups, in India, is the 50:50 partner of world’s largest retailer Walmart Stores Inc?

A. Bharti Group B. Reliance group
C. Sara Group D. Future Group
E. Aditya Birla Group                                                                      

81. The report of thirteenth Finance Commission of India is for the period of :

A. 2007-12 B. 2009-14
C. 2010-15 D. 20012-17
E. None of the above    

82. Twelve five year plan envisages annual economic growth at :

A. 8 percent B. 9 percent
C. 11 percent D. 7.5 percent
E. 10 per cent    

83. Recently, Alvin Roth and Lloyd Shapley were awarded the 2012 Nobel prize in economics. They belong to which of the following countries? 

A. Russia B. Israel
C. France D. USA
E. Germany    

84. According to the report on Global Hunger Index 2012 released by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Welthungerhilfe, and Concern Worldwide, India ranks :

A. 79th B. 65th
C. 80th D. 91st
E. 72nd    

85. G-20 summit 2012 was held in :

A. Rome B. Masko
C. Cannes D. Laos Cabos
E. None of the above    

86. ECOMARC is granted to such a product, which is not harmful to environment. What is the mark of this?

A. A pitcher of clay B. A green Tree
C. Cloud D. A picture of rabbit
E. None of the above    

87. According to new norms of the RBI, a cheque issued by a drawer should be deposited with the drawee bank within :

A. 6 months B. 5 months
C. 3 months D. 2 months
E. 4 months    

88.India’s first financial super market aimed at cross-selling non-standard banking products recently has been opened in which of the following cities?

A. Jaipur B. Ahmedabad
C. Hyderabad D. Chennai
E. Nagpur                                                                             

89. According to the Global Competitiveness Report 2012-2013, which of the following countries tops the overall ranking?

A. China B. Sweden
C. Italy D. Japan
E. Switzerland                                                                             

90. Project Big Green has been initiated by which of the following companies?

A. Microsoft B. Apple
C. Infosys D. IBM
E. None of the above    

91. Who among the following is the current president of Nasscom?

A. Natarajan Chandrasekaran B. Krishnakumar Natarajan
C. Aprup Sengupta D. Som Mittal
E. None of the above    

92. Recently, the ‘Bloomberg Markets’ magazine has included an Indian personality in the list of 50 most influential people in the finance category. Name the personality.

A. Mamta Banerjee B. Mayawati
C. Uma Bharti D. Indra Nooyi
E. Sonia Gandhi    

93. Wipro BPO, the business process outsourcing arm of Wipro Technologies, has opened its first rural centre in which of the following states recently?

A. Karnataka B. Tamil Nadu
C. Punjab D. Maharashtra
E. Haryana    

94.  More than three lakh trees in which of the following state are recently under the attack of Leptocybe Invasa, a gall insect, which causes swelling in the veins of the leaves of young trees and hampers their growth? 

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Punjab
C. Haryana D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Tamil nadu    

95. Who among the following was appointed the President of Standard & Poor’s recently?

A. Dellep Nayar B. Douglas Peterson
C. Michelle Roberto D. Jonathan Dennison
E. None of the above    

96. Which country had introduced first polymer currency notes?

A. Australia B. Switzerland
C. France D. USA
E. None of the above    

97. The union government approved merger of State Bank of India Commercial and International Bank Ltd (SBICI) with its parent bank SBI. SBICI was set up in which of the following year?

A. 1991 B. 1992
C. 1993 D. 1994
E. 1997    

98. Which country’s Airlines recently has placed largest aircraft order in history of Airlines industry?

A. Australia B. Germany
C. United States D. Russia
E. None of the above    

99. After 18 years of negotiations on 22 August 2012, Russia became member of which of the following organisations?

A. IMF B. UNO
C. World Bank D. WTO
E. ILO    

Section E - Essay

100. 

Essay Topic: "The atom bombs are piling up in the factories, the police are prowling through the cities, the lies are streaming from the loudspeakers, but the earth is still going round the sun."


ANSWER KEY

A 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 E 9 D 10 B
11 E 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 E 16 C 17 C 18 B 19 E 20 D
21 B 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 C
31 C 32 C 33 A 34 D 35 E 36 C 37 B 38 A 39 D 40 A
41 B 42 D 43 E 44 A 45 A 46 C 47 E 48 E 49 A 50 C
51 B 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 C 56 C 57 A 58 A 59 B 60 D
61 C 62 E 63 E 64 B 65 A 66 C 67 D 68 E 69 E 70 C
71 A 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 A 76 D 77 C 78 D 79 D 80 A
81 C 82 B 83 D 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 E 90 D
91 D 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 A 97 D 98 C 99 D    

 

 

Crucial Dates, You Should not Miss

TAPMI, Manipal
Admission Application closes on January 16, 2018 for 2018-20
BIMTECH, Greater Noida
Admissions open for PGDM Programmes at BIMTECH. Apply Now !
Lal Bahadur Shastri Institute of Management
Admissions are Open at LBSIM, Delhi. Apply Now !
FORE School of Management
Apply for PGDM & PGDM-IB Programmes. Application Deadline is December 22, 2017.
Goa Institute of Management
PGDM Admissions Open at GIM. Apply Before January 5, 2018
NIRMA
Last Date to Apply for MBA (Full Time) Programme at NIRMA is January 09, 2018
XAT 2018
Application Last Date 15th December 2017 ( With Late Fee )
IMI New Delhi
Application closes 4th December 2017
XIM Bhubaneshwar
Last Date 8th December 2017
SIBM Bengaluru
Apply for SNAP 2017 to be held on Dec 17 and apply for SIBM-Bengaluru through the SNAP Form
Institute of Rural Management Anand
IRMASAT will be conducted on February 4,2018, Apply Before December 31,2017
IBSAT 2017
Last date for IBSAT registration is December 12 , 2017
SIBM Hyderabad
Apply for SNAP 2017 to be held on Dec 17 and apply for SIBM-Hyderabad through the SNAP Form
Institute of Public Enterprise
Last Date to Apply for IPE, Hyderabad is 31st December 2017
K J Somaiya Institute of Management Studies & Research, Mumbai
Last date for Application is 31st Jan, 2018
SDMIMD Mysore
Application for PGDM 2018-20 at SDMIMD is open till February 28, 2018
MDI Murshidabad
Applications for PGPM 2018-20 at MDI Murshidabad are open
img

Admission Open Now

Following Colleges are accepting applications.

INTERNATIONAL MANAGEMENT INSTITUTE

Admissions open for 2018-20

PGDM, PGDM (HRM), PGDM(B & FS), Executive PGDM

Apply Online