× logo

The Free 30-Day CAT RC Course

"It is designed to help you excel in the upcoming CAT 2024 exam"

-By Lavleen Kaur Kapoor. Over 2,00,000+ Subscribers

read more

No thanks >









Lavleen kaur kapoor

Get Personalized MBA Mentorship

Hope you enjoy reading this article.
Connect with my team on WhatsApp for unbiased MBA College Selection advice.

- Lavleen Kaur Kapoor

SNAP 2022 Mock Test

SNAP Exam Date: 10th December 2023

SNAP 2022

The SNAP 2022 exam will be held in December 10, 2022. The SNAP exam has four sections – General English, Quantitative Ability, Logical & Analytical Reasoning and General Awareness. A good way to prepare yourself for the SNAP exam is by writing the SNAP mock tests.

Taking a mock test paper is a major part of exam preparation. Mock exams assist candidates in getting themselves familiar with the SNAP exam style and types of questions which helps to improve their performance. SNAP Mock questions helps the candidates in improving their speed and accuracy.

Is SNAP exam difficult or easy?

When compared to other management tests such as CAT, XAT and GMAT the difficulty level of SNAP exam is lesser. Despite the fact that the SNAP syllabus and exam structure are quite similar to the CAT, the question paper difficulty is normally moderate. But, the Logical & Analytical Reasoning section of SNAP is considered tough and needs extensive practice to score. 

How to prepare for SNAP Exam?

While doing preparation for any competitive exam, the first thing to consider is how much time is required to complete the entire curriculum and which parts of the syllabus can be covered easily in the allotted time. So, First of all candidates needs to schedule SNAP preparation time. Below are some tips to crack SNAP Exam

Enroll for a mock series.

Examine all of your mocks.

Every day, practice each subject.

Make the most of your abilities.

Which coaching is best for SNAP?

The Best Coaching centres for SNAP 2022 are listed below :

  • CATKing
  • Cracku 
  • Elites Grid 
  • Hitbullseye 
  • CetKing 
  • iQuanta
  • 2IIM
  • Career Launcher 
  • TIME
  • IMS

Practice Questions on SNAP 2022?


Directions for questions 1 to 3 : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Four friends – P, Q, R and S – are the students of a class, which consists of two sections – A and B. P and S belong to section A, whereas Q and R belong to section B. In a class test, each of the four friends gets a sectional as well as an overall rank. Two of them always speak the truth.

When asked about their ranks, following were their replies :

(i) P: The sectional rank of R and Q are 1 and 2 respectively.

(ii) Q: My overall rank is 3 and that of R is 4.

(iii) R: The overall rank of S is lower than that of Q, but higher than that of mine.

(iv) S: The overall rank of Q and P are 2 and 3 respectively.

1. Which two friends always speak the truth?

A. P and Q B. Q and R
C. P and S D. Cannot be determined

2. What is the overall rank of P?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

3. Which of the following statements must be false?

A. The sectional rank of P is higher than that of S. B. The sectional rank of Q is higher than that of R.
C. The overall rank of R is higher than that of P. D. The overall rank of Q is higher than that of P.

Directions for questions 4 and 5 : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A wall of dimensions 4 m × 0.6 m × 4 m is constructed by using identical and indistinguishable cubical bricks. The edge of the cubical bricks chosen in such a way that number of bricks used to construct the wall is minimum possible. Some bricks are black and some are red in color. 

4. Find the minimum number of bricks required to construct the wall.

A. 120 B. 180
C. 1200 D. 1800

5. How many bricks are used to construct the outer layer of the wall?

A. 920 B. 828
C. 880 D. None of these

Directions for questions 6 and 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The square grid shown below represents the road map of a city namely Lumbai. The lines in the grid represent the roads in the city. Any of the two roads are either parallel or perpendicular to each other. The perpendicular distance between any two adjacent parallel roads is 1 km. A person can use only the mentioned roads to travel from one place to the other in the city.

SNAP 2020

6. A person can only travel either in North direction or in East direction. If a person wants to go to D from A, how many different routes can he take?

A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7

7. Sajid starts from point A and travels 2 km North, then 3 km East and finally 3 km South. Which further route could lead him to point C?

I. 1 km South and then 4 km West.

II. 2 km West, then 1 km South and then 2 km West.

III. 1 km East, then 1 km South and then 3 km West.

A. I and II B. II and III
C. I and III D. All the three

Directions for questions 8 to 11: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a nuclear power plant, a machine produces or destroys the neutrons on the basis of input given to it. It accepts X and Y, which are whole numbers, as initial input. In a step, if X + Y is odd, then nuclei are attacked by slow motion of neutrons and it produces (X + Y) number of neutrons in the step; if X + Y is even, then cadmium rod is activated and it destroys (X + Y) number of neutrons in the step. The value of Y and (X + Y) in particular step become the respective values of X and Y for the next step. The machine stops working if the number of neutrons left with the machine is zero. It is also known that the initial number of neutrons with the machine is 10.

8. If the input for the first step is X = 1 and Y = 1, then find the number of neutrons with the machine at the end of the third step.

A. 18 B. 17
C 16 D 15

9. If the input for the first step is X = 1 and Y = 1, find the number of neutrons with the machine at the end of 61 step.

A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 10

10. If the input for the first step is X = 1 and Y = 1, then at the end of which step will the number of neutrons with the machine be zero?

A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. It will never happen

11. If the input for the first step is X = 2 and Y = 2, then at the end of which step will the machine stop working? 

A. 2nd B. 3rd
C. 4th D. It will never happen

Directions for questions 12 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each of the Seven faculties – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – teaches a different subjects among History, Civics, Geography, Physics, Chemistry, Zoology and Mathematics, not necessarily in that order. There are exactly two married couples. It is also known that :

(i) There are three female and four male faculties.

(ii) R, who teaches History, is married to the faculty who teaches Chemistry.

(iii) T and V are female faculties who teach Zoology and Physics respectively.

(iv) P teaches Mathematics and his wife does not teach Physics.

(v) Q teaches neither Chemistry nor Civics.

(vi) S is male and U is single.

12. Which subject does U teach?

A. Mathematics B. Chemistry
C. Civics D. Cannot be determined

13. Which subject does Q teach?

A. Geography B. Civics
C. History D. Cannot be determined

14. Which of the following pairs does not form a married couple?

C. QV D. None of these

15. Which subject does P’s wife teach?

A. Chemistry B. Zoology
C. History D. Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 16 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A family of five members – A, B, C, D and E – has two female members. There are two fathers and two sons in the family. C is a male bachelor. They decide to swim on one of the five days from Monday to Friday in a week. It is also known that :

(i) Father cannot swim immediately before his son.

(ii) There must be a gap of at least 2 days between the days on which C and E are to swim.

(iii) Monday and Wednesday are assigned for female and male members respectively.

(iv) A is the husband of D and is to swim on Friday.

16. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. E is the husband of B. B. B is the husband of E.
C. D is the father of E. D. B is the son of A.

17. Who are the male members in the family?

A. A, B and C B. A, B and D
C. B, C and D D. B, D and E

18. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. B is to swim a day before D. B. There is a gap of only one day between the days on which D and C are to swim
C. There is a gap of only one day between the days on which B and C are to swim. D. None of these

Directions for question no. 19 : The following question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these  statements. Choose the subset as your answer where the statements therein are logically consistent among themselves.

19. A. If it rains, then groundwater levels increase.

B. Measures are taken to check drought only if there is drought.

C. If measures are taken to check drought, farmers do not hoard water.

D. Unless farmers hoard water, groundwater levels increase.

E. Whenever there is drought, farmers hoard water.

F. There is no drought.

G. Only if farmers hoard water, groundwater levels do not increase.

H. Measures are taken to check drought.

A. E, F, H, D and B B. C, H, F, A and B
C. B, F, E, G and H D. None of the above

20. Select the alternative that logically follows the two given statements :

Not all chillies are spicy.

Some chillies are tangy.

A. Some chillies are not tangy. B. Some tangy is spicy.
C. No tangy is spicy. D. None of these

21. Increased investment in R&D across sectors encourages innovation, which in turn, spurs economic growth. A recent study shows that a strong positive correlation exists between total R&D expenditure and patent applications over a decade. Patent applications are a reliable indicator of innovation in a country.

Which one of the following, if true, casts doubt on the argument above?

A. R&D investment creates patent applications with a time lag, which is different from country to
B. The number of patent applications in a given decade depends more on R&D expenditure in the
business sector than on R&D gross domestic expenditure.
C. Though patent applications have increased in the last decade, only 5% of the applications
actually resulted in new patents.
D. Patent applications are not the only indicator of innovation in a country

22. There has been no end of attacks on this particular strategy. Naysayers have contended that the strategy is flawed, that the company will not benefit by taking such a risk, that our financial situation does not warrant the risk involved. These critics need to understand that risk is not necessarily a bad thing. It’s complacency that we need to watch out for.

The argument above

A. uses an appeal to emotion. B. misrepresents the opponent’s position and attacks that distorted position.
C. assumes the truth of what it sets out to prove. D. draws a general conclusion based on a specific example.

23. Punishment seems to direct child behavior by using pain or unpleasantness. But since it stops bad behavior just for the moment, punishment does not teach your child the behavior you want him to learn.

Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning similar to the one used in the argument above?

A. Learning from mistakes is more complex than carrying on in the same way as before. Learning
is possible only when one realizes what precisely went wrong and how it can be avoided in
B. Punishment cannot be generic but has to be in keeping with the situation and should encourage
the desired behavior.
C. In the workplace, we often treat a permanent problem as a temporary one, and end up creating
processes that ultimately do not provide us solutions.
D. Drivers who are fined for speeding are at increased risk of receiving subsequent speeding citations,
suggesting that speeding citations have limited effects on deterrence.

24. The Israel Defense Force (IDF) is planning to launch a wearable device capable of helping save lives by monitoring a soldier’s physical condition and alerting commanders to life-threatening situations. The “physiological sensor,” a miniature device developed by Israeli start-up Life Beam, is attached to the ear of a person and simultaneously monitors critical physiological parameters, including blood pressure, breathing and heart rate, while the soldier is engaged in rigorous activities. The sensor can instantly discern life-threatening changes that point to heat stroke or dehydration, enabling early evacuation and treatment.

The above paragraph is not based on which of the following assumptions?

A. Evacuation and treatment are possible and can save lives. B. Heat stroke and dehydration are the primary life threatening situations.
C. Soldiers will wear the device while engaged in rigorous activities. D. Stress and other factors will not pollute the data collected by the device.

25. The U.S. will be releasing graphic images to deter smokers. Federal health officials released on June 21 their final selection of nine graphic warning labels to cover the top half of cigarette packages beginning next year, over the opposition of tobacco manufacturers. In the first major change to warning labels in more than a quarter-century, the graphic images will include photos of horribly damaged teeth and lungs and a man exhaling smoke through a tracheotomy opening in his neck. The Department of Health and Human Services selected nine color images among 36 proposed to accompany larger text warnings.

The above paragraph is not based on which of the following assumptions?

A. Photos will be more effective than just words in warning tobacco consumers. B. Photos will be more effective than just words in warning tobacco consumers.
C. These labels will help encourage smokers to quit, and prevent children from smoking. D. Tobacco manufacturers believe that the release of such images may lead to a loss in sales.

26. The era of the 25-paise coin has come to an end. Those of us who have long cherished its old-world charm will be left only with fond memories. In its heyday, it enjoyed considerable worth. It could buy a cinema ticket; it covered the bus fare to a town and served as a generous offering to beggars. Much earlier, it was also a day’s wages and could buy one-fourth sack of rice. Inflation has rendered 25 paisa valueless and a relic from the past.

The inference that can be validly drawn from the information presented above is that

A. the 25 paisa coin was sufficient to meet a day’s expenses in old times. B. inflation is increasing at a rate higher than ever before and has rendered the 25 paisa coin
C. the 25 paisa coin was once a princely sum. D. there is no commercial use of the 25 paisa coin today.

Directions for question no. 27: Pick up the right analogy.

27. Sad : Disconsolate

A. hungry : famished B. furious : despondent
C. demeanor : rude D. serene : excitable

28. As auditor to a nation whose institutions of oversight are weak and underdeveloped, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is more than just the keeper of our national accounts. It is, in many ways, a conscience-keeper and a watchdog, which may not bite but can bark and warn ordinary citizens that something is amiss in the wider affairs of state. Like the Election Commission and the Supreme Court, the CAG has managed to protect its integrity and independence despite pressure from various areas. If conducted freely and fairly, a robust audit can serve as a catalyst for corrective action.

Which of the following cannot be logically concluded from the paragraph above?​

A. The Election Commission, Supreme Court and the CAG have all managed to protect their
B. The Election Commission, Supreme Court and the CAG have all managed to protect their
C. The primary function of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is to keep national accounts. D. Warning citizens about lapses in the wider state of affairs can also help the nation in some

29. “If the clouds are grey, it will not rain.” Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the given statement is false?

A. It did rain when the clouds were not grey. B. Sometimes it doesn’t rain when the clouds are not grey.
C. Sometimes it rains when the clouds are grey. D. Even when the clouds are not grey, it rains.

30. In the diagram given below, some of the cells contain dot, some contain cross and some are left blank. If positions of cells which contain dot or cross follow a specific pattern, what will be the total number of dots after filling the blank cells by applying the same pattern? 

SNAP 2020

A. 13 B. 14
C. 15 D. 16


31. Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs hiked the cap on foreign investment in the broadcast sector to :

A. 74 per cent B. 49 Per cent
C. 26 Per cent D. 60 Per cent

32. India’s first newspaper was :

A. Amrita Bazar Patrika B. Vande Mataram
C. Bengal Gazette D. Rast Goftar

33. The biggest producer of diamond in the world is :

A. Russia B. South Africa
C. Canada D. Botswana

34. When coat/blanket is beaten by the stick, the dust particles are removed. This is an example of :

A. Newton’s first law of motion B. Newton’s second law of motion
C. Newton’s third law of motion D. Newton’s first law of gravitation

35. Shome Committee recently submitted its report to the Union Finance Minister. The report is related to :

A. Coal mine allocation B. GAAR
C. Banking reform D. Privatisation of Railways

36. World’s oldest peak, Guru Shikhar, is the highest peak of which of the following mountain ranges?

A. Purvanchal B. Aravali Range
C. Satpura D. Shiwaliks

37. The winners of the Mixed doubles title in the Wimbledon Tennis Championship 2012 are :

A. Frederik Nielsen and Elena Vesnina B. Jonathan Marray and Lisa Raymond
C. Leander Paes and Elena Vesnina D. Mike Bryan and Lisa Raymond

38. Vembanad Lake is the longest lake in India. It is located in :

A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu
C. Odisha D. Maharashtra

39. In the Men’s 7-a-side Football event at the London Paralympics 2012, which of the following countries won the gold medal?

A. Ukraine B. Brazil
C. Russia D. Germany

40. Gaddis tribe is found in :

A. Himachal Pradesh B. Sikkim
C. Kerala D. Arunachal Pradesh

41. Recently, Kaushik Basu has been appointed as the :

A. India’s permanent representative in UN B. Chief economist and senior vice president of IMF
C. Secretary-General of the Commonwealth D. Chief economist and senior vice president of the World Bank

42. The Women’s Under-20 World Cup 2012 final was recently held in :

A. Tokyo B. Berlin
C. Moscow D. Sydney

43. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Minorities Committee?

A. B.R. Ambedkar B. Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
C. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee D. A.V. Thakkar

44. Which of the following strait connects the Gulf of Aqaba with the Red Sea?

A. Strait of Baltiysk B. Strait of Messina
C. Straits of Tiran D. Strait of Hormuz

45. 45. Who among the following Hollywood directors is the first person to make a solo dive to the Pacific Ocean trench?

A. James Cameron B. Robert Wise
C. Steven Soderbergh D. William Wyler

46. K.N. Tilak Kumar is the current president of :

C. Indian Newspaper Society D. National Commission for Scheduled Castes

47. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is the statutory body that monitors the implementation of the Act across the country. Who among the following is the current chairman of NCPCR?

A. Shantha Sinha B. Yashwant Jain
C. Amod Kanth D. Nina Nayak

48. The recommendations of the Inter-Ministerial Group (IMG) headed by Zohra Chatterjee are regarding :

A. reforms in Stock Markets B. reform in banking sectors
C. tax reform D. de-allocation of coal mines

49. Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold?

A. Shantha Sinha B. Yashwant Jain
C. Amod Kanth D. Nina Nayak

50. Who is the current Chairman of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?

A. Prashant Sareen B. S.S.N.Moorthy
C. U K Sinha D. P K Malhotra

51. Senkaku islands is disputed between :

A. England and France B. China and Vietnam
C. China and Japan D. Egypt and Israel

52. Which of these is the largest producer of nuclear energy in the world?

A. Japan B. USA
C. France D. Russia

53. ‘Struggle for Existence’ is the autobiography of which of the following Indian woman leaders?

A. Mayawati B. J.Jayalalitha
C. Sushma Swaraj D. Mamta Banerjee

54. Recently China successfully tested the new 14,000 km-range Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM). What is the name of the missile?

A. Dongfeng-41 B. Varyag
C. Brahmos D. Changez -2

55. Which of the following is a book written by Salman Rushdie?

A. Swimming Home B. Joseph Anton
C. Bring Up the Bodies D. The Lighthouse

56. Which of the following states has the highest number of joint families?

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Rajasthan
C. Bihar D. Haryana

57. Recently, FIFA has labelled a 10-month ban on Juventus coach Antonio Conte for not reporting match-fixing. Antonio belongs to :

A. Canada B. Germany
C. Australia D. Italy

58. Current President of International Cricket Council is :

A. N. Srinivasan B. Alan Isaac
C. Suresh Kalmadi D. Nasim Ashraf

59. Which of the following organisation(s) has/have been chosen for the Skoll Award, 2012 for Social Entrepreneurship by the Skoll Foundation in Oxford, England?

A. The National Association of Street Vendors of India (NASVI) and Nidan B. Sulabh International Social Service Organisation
C. Sambhav and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh D. Zed Tech Social Organisation

60. To promote institutional deliveries and to create awareness and responsibility towards health in pregnant women, which of the following State has introduced ‘Surakshit Maa’ and ‘Swasth Maa’ awards?

A. Bihar B. Haryana
C. Madhya Pradesh D. New Delhi

61. Which of the following airport authorities won the prestigious international ‘Jane’s ATC Award’ for the year 2012?

A. Louisville Regional Airport Authority (LRAA) B. Thunder Bay Airport Authority (TBAA)
C. Airports Authority of India (AAI) D. Halifax International Airport Authority (HIAA)

62. Which of the following female actors has been awarded the ‘best actress award’ in 59th National Film Awards?

A. Leishangthem Tonthoingambi Devi B. Vidya Balan
C. Ananya Chatterjee D. Arundhati Nag

63. Santosh Trophy is associated with which of the following games?

A. Cricket B. Football
C. Badminton D. Golf

64. ‘Do or Die’ is associated with which of the following movement?

A. Dandi march B. Non-Cooperation movement
C. Khilafat movement D. Quit India movement

65. Which of the following Retail Groups in India is the 50 : 50 partner of world’s largest retailer Wal-Mart Stores, Inc.?

A. Bharti Group B. Mahindra Group
C. Sahara Group D. Vodafone Group

66. One recepient of the Swedish Right Livelihood Award 2012, belongs to Afganistan. Name that recipient :

A. Sima Samar B. Hayrettin Karaca
C. Gene Sharp D. Campaign Against Arms Trade

67. ‘Dans le harem de Kadhafi’ is a book written by :

A. Lewis Hamilton B. Annick Cojean
C. Barak Obama D. Vladimir Putin

68. 12th Five year plan will be for the period of :

A. 2010-2015 B. 2015-2020
C. 2011-2016 D. 2012-2017

69. According to the latest report of Forest Survey of India, which of the following states has the largest forest cover area in India?

A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Maharashtra D. Andhra Pradesh

70. Aamir Khan is the national goodwill ambassador of which of the following organisations?



Directions for questions 71 to 74: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The year 1386 marks a significant break in Chaucer’s life. Soon after the Wonderful Parliament he vacated his position at the Port of London, and left London for Kent. The records featuring Chaucer illustrate the fact that Chaucer, a man not of noble birth or in any way connected to the aristocracy, survived and indeed prospered in this machinery. This goes to show that many official functions were increasingly executed by the emerging social group of people like Chaucer, who were capable of fulfilling official task to the satisfaction of their superiors.

Since Gower apparently never pursued a sustained career at the royal court or within the City of London, it is not possible to single out individual events in his biography to the extent possible in Chaucer’s case. Gower does not seem to have fully severed his ties with those parts of society close to the royal court at Westminster and merchant circles in London of which Chaucer was a member, and his poetry strongly suggests that he was an astute social observer and commentator. Still, as I have indicated already, we simply do not have the kind of firm documentary evidence that we have in the case of his contemporary and friend. The purpose of the following chapters is to outline Gower’s connection with the law as well as his choice of living quarters within the Priory of St Mary Overie in Southwark, assessing the impact on and significance for his poetics and politics.

71. The style of the passage is

A. comparative B. analytical
C. narrative D. descriptive

72. According to the passage

A. there is enough evidence to assess the impact of Chaucer’s experiences on his writings. B. there is not enough evidence to assess the impact of Chaucer’s experiences on Gower’s writings.
C. there is enough evidence to assess the impact of Chaucer’s experiences on his poetry. D. there is not enough evidence to assess the impact of Gower’s experiences on his poetry.

73. It can be inferred that Chaucer and Gower were both

A. poets B. competitors
C. lawyers D. contemporaries

74. By astute the author means

A. amateur B. critical
C. shrewd D. passionate

Directions for questions 75 to 77: Choose the correct option.

75. Tachophobia means

A. fear of taking tests B. fear of speed
C. fear of technology D. fear of road travel

76. Indelible is

A. impossible to remove B. not deliberate
C. unfit to be eaten D. extremely difficult to deal with

77. A figure of speech in which incongruous or contradictory terms appear side by side is called…………

A. paradox B. alliteration
C. oxymoron D. hyperbole

Directions for questions 78 to 80: Choose the correct option.

78. All I ask ______ you is one thing, please don’t be cynical.

A. from B. by
C. of D. on

79. Broccoli is good for health compared ______ ice-cream.

A. to B. with
C. by D. from

80. They hung a dummy up behind me, and told me to_____________ around and kick it.

A. whirl B. whorl
C. whirled D. world

Directions for questions 81 and 82: Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R, S) to make meaningful sentences.

81. No person who is arrested shall …………………… a legal practitioner of his choice.

P. as soon as may be,

Q. be detained in custody without being informed,

R. be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by

S. of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he


82. Our world of morning………………….. from the ultimate reality.

P. dream worlds and

Q. dimensions that separate us

R. traffic jams is just one of many

S. mochaccinos and evening rush hour


Directions for question no. 83: The pair of capitalized words given below is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that DOES NOT express a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.


a. Tactition : Sensation

b. Audition : Hearing

c. Olfactory : Smell

d. Gustation : Taste

Directions for questions 84 to 87: Choose the correct synonymous word or description for each italicized word.

In contemporary(84) times, educational institutions such as the universities have witnessed progressive(85) deterioration and decay all over India. At the superficial level, such decay is often attributed (86) to multiple and interrelated causes, including political interference in the appointment of institutional heads, deteriorating educational standards due to paucity(87) of academically excellent faculty, weak training at the primary and secondary levels of schooling before students are admitted to university, and growing student indiscipline.


A. ancient B. trendy
C. modern D. post-modern


A. poor B. regressive
C. advanced D. increasing


A. ascribed B. marked
C. regarded D. negated


A. indifference B. lack
C. ampleness D. negligence

Directions for questions 88 and 89: Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms.

88. What does “all thumbs” mean?

A. good luck B. awkward
C. failure D. stylish

89. “High on the hog” means

A. extremely drunk B. very excited and joyful
C. living in luxury D. anxious or nervous

Directions for question no. 90: Fill in the blanks with the correct simile.

90. As clear as ………….

A. mud B. water
C. sky D. glass

Directions for questions 91 to 93 : In the following sentences, one word or phrase is used incorrectly.

Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too.

91. For 180 years, people have been asking the question: is photography an art?

A. For B. have been
C. the question D. no error

92. Land-based activities, which have an adverse impact on coastal and marine ecosystems, should be in control immediately.

A. Land-based B. impact on
C. be in control D. no error

93. The burning of fossil fuels and the forest clearance have increased atmospheric carbon dioxide by about 15 percent in the last hundred years.

A. forest clearance B. by about
C. last hundred D. no error

Directions for questions 94 and 95 :  In the questions below, the sentences have been given in Active/ Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.

94. The Ocean covers 71% of the surface area of the globe.

A. 71% of the surface area of the globe has been covered by the Ocean. B. The globe had 71% of its surface area covered by the Ocean.
C. 71% of the surface area of the globe is almost covered by the Ocean. D. 71% of the surface area of the globe is covered by the Ocean.

95. He will not have saved enough money to buy a car.

A. Enough money was not saved by him to buy a car. B. Enough money will not have been saved by him to buy a car.
C. Enough money had not been saved by him to buy a car. D. Enough money will not be saved by him to buy a car.

Directions for questions 96 to 98: Choose the correct option.

96. brick : wall : building

A. stem : tree : park B. thread : needle : machine
C. spoon : bowl : dish D. alphabet : word : sentence

97. I look forward to ________ you.

A. meet B. meeting
C. meet with D. meeting with

98. While John was busy chatting on the phone, the thief _______ the wardrobe

A. will unlock B. was unlocking
C. had been unlocking D. would unlock

Directions for questions 99 and 100: Choose the word that cannot be coupled with the given word to form a new word.

99. Cross

A. leg B. way
C. beam D. current

100. Free

A. boot B. bee
C. time D. hold

Directions for questions 101 to 104: Choose the grammatically correct option from the following.


A. The keys were laid out in multiple rows. B. The keys were laid low in multiple rows.
C. The keys were laid down in multiple rows. D. The keys were laid over in multiple rows.


A. I haven’t seen my old school teacher since two years. B. I had not seen my old school teacher in the last two years.
C. I haven’t seen my old school teacher for two years. D. I had not seen my old school teacher till the last two years.


A. Multiple Sclerosis is the disease of a brain and spinal cord marked by loss of balance, vision
loss, weakness of limbs, and bladder dysfunction among other symptoms.
B. Multiple Sclerosis is a disease of a brain and spinal cord marked by loss of balance, vision loss,
weakness of limbs, and bladder dysfunction amongst other symptoms.
C. Multiple Sclerosis is a disease of the brain and spinal cord marked by loss of balance, vision,
weakness of limbs, and bladder dysfunction among other symptoms.
D. Multiple Sclerosis is a disease of the brain and spinal cord marked by loss of balance, vision
loss, weakness of limbs, and bladder dysfunction among other symptoms.


A. He did a good job by getting the accident victim to the hospital on time to save him. B. He did a good job by getting the accident victim to the hospital in time to save him.
C. He did a good job by getting the accident victim at the hospital in time to save him. D. He did a good job by getting the accident victim into the hospital on time to save him.

Directions for question no. 105: Find the odd one out from the group of words.


A. paean B. encomium
C. eulogy D. dirge

Directions for question no. 106: Six sentences are given below out of which the first (S1) and the last (S6) form the beginning and the end of a passage respectively. Arrange the rest of the four sentences labeled P, Q, R and S in a logical order so that the six together make a coherent passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.

106. S1. For some the sheer extravagance of Titanic’s demise lies at the heart of its attraction.

A. For others the Titanic’s fascination begins and ends with the people on board. B. One coward is said to have made for the lifeboats dressed in women’s clothing, but most people
were honorable, many heroic.
C. It took two hours and 40 minutes for the Titanic to sink, just long enough for 2,208 tragic-epic
performances to unfold, with the ship’s lights blazing.
D. This has always been a story of superlatives: A ship so strong and so grand, sinking in water so
cold and so deep.

S2.The captain stayed at the bridge, the band played on, the Marconi wireless radio operators continued sending their distress signals until the very end.


Directions for questions 107 and 108: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

107. Parsimonious

A. penurious B. generous
C. parochial D. spiritual

108. Sedulous

A. tedious B. bombastic
C. sorrowful D. assiduous

Directions for question no. 109: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word.

109. Laconic

A. sturdy B. sardonic
C. verbose D. crisp

Directions for question no. 110: Choose the correct option.

110. He had been a _________ all his life, but never realized it until his years at the university unlocked his _________.

A. scholar, fate B. philomath, potential
C. loser, fiasco D. teacher, talent


111. A train running at a certain speed crosses a person running towards it at a speed of 6 km/hr in 18 seconds and takes 30 seconds to cross a platform on its way of length 160 m. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 54 B. 42
C. 48 D. 57

112. If P is the product, S is the sum and A is the average of first N natural numbers, then which among the following is definitely false?

A. P = S > A B. P > S > A
C. S > P > A D. None of these

113. Find the value of log422 + log428 + log4 218 + ..... log4 22n2.

A. (n + n2)/2 B. (n + 2n2)/2
C. (n + n2)(2n + 1)/6 D. None of these

114. Which of the following cannot be the remainder when a perfect square is divided by 9?

A. 5 B. 7
C. 4 D. None of these

115. 8 men and 6 women can complete a piece of work in 20 days. If 9 men and 6 women can complete the three-fifth of the work in 11 days, how much time would 3 men and 5 women take to complete the work?

A. 32 days B. 24 days
C. 30 days D. None of these

116. A square is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. Find the length (in cm) of the side of the square.

A. 10√3 - 15 B. 10√3(2 - √3)
C. 15√3 + 10 D. 10(3√3 - 2)

117. What is the probability that the month of April has either 5 Tuesdays or 5 Wednesdays?

A. 1/7 B. 2/7
C. 3/7 D. 4/7

118. A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of 12 articles on selling 84 articles. What is the percentage profit?

A. 25 B. 14.28
C. 16.66 D. 20

119. In a 2000 m race, A gives a head start of 30 seconds to B and still beats him by 80 m. If A had given a head start of 40 seconds to B, then race would have ended in dead heat. What is the speed (in m/s) of A?

A. 9 11/21 B. 8
C. 9 13/21 D. None of these

120. A cuboidal wooden block of dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm is cut into smaller cubes of edge 1 cm each. What is the approximate percentage increase/decrease in the surface area of the block?

A. 545 B. 395
C. 115 D. 454

121. If the number KP6428K is divisible by 16, where K and P are single digit whole numbers. Find the maximum value of P × K.

A. 12 B. 56
C. 72 D. 81

122. In a class, 27 students play hockey, 36 students play cricket and 13 students play both the game. If the number of students who play none of the games is one less than one-third of the number of students who play hockey, how many students are there in the class?

A. 78 B. 68
C. 82 D. 58

123. If two fair dice are rolled simultaneously, what is the probability that the product of the numbers on their upper faces is even?

A. 1/6 B. 1/4
C. 3/4 D. 5/6

124. The lengths of the parallel sides of an isosceles trapezium are 15 cm and 25 cm. If the length of its non-parallel side is 13 cm, what is the area (in cm2) of the trapezium?

A. 280 B. 240
C. 360 D. 220

Directions for questions 125 to 128: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The following bar graph shows the percentage allocation of the budgeted funds by the union government of Shikshaland towards Primary Education (PE), Secondary Education (SE) and Higher education (HE) from FY 2007-08 to FY 2010-11. It is also known that the total budgeted funds in 2007-08 was 1800 crore and it kept increasing by 300 crore in each of the subsequent year.

SNAP 2020

125. The Fund allocated towards Primary Education (PE) in FY 2009-10 was what percent more than that of in FY 2008-09?

A. 46.66 B. 35
C. 40 D. None of these

126. What was the sum (in crores) of funds allocated towards Higher Education (HE) in FY 2008-09 and FY 2010-11?

A. 1735 B. 1785
C. 1765 D. 1745

127. If the fund allocated towards Secondary Education (SE) is denoted by 'F', in which financial year was the value of F the second highest?

A. FY 2008-09 B. FY 2007-08
C. FY 2010-11 D. FY 2009-10

128. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Allocation of funds towards Higher Education (HE) showed an erratic trend during the given
B. Allocation of funds towards Secondary Education (SE) in FY 2010-11 was higher than that in
FY 2008-09.
C. Allocation of funds towards Primary Education (PE) kept increasing in each of the years over the
previous year.
D. None of the above

Directions for questions 129 to 133: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The pie chart given below shows the distribution of the market share of toilet soaps in India for the year 2011.

129. What was the percentage market share of Dettol in the toilet soap market?

A. 18 B. 25
C. 20 D. 16.67

130. By what percent market share of Lux was more than that of Dove?

A. 166.67 B. 120
C. 137.50 D. 150

131. What was the absolute difference (in crores) between the market shares of Dettol and Breeze?

A. 900 B. 1200
C. 600 D. 800

132. If Lifebuoy formed 40% market share of the others, then what was the percentage market share of Lifebuoy in the toilet soap market?

A. 10 B. 15
C. 12.5 D. Cannot be determined

133. If the rural India constituted one-fifth of the total market share of toilet soaps, then the market share (in crores) of Nirma in the rural India was

A. 12 B. 10
C. 9.60 D. Cannot be determined

134. Amit can complete a piece of work in 20 days and Sumit can complete the same in 24 days. They decide to complete the work by working on alternate days. If Sumit starts the work, how long will it take to complete the work?

A. 20 6/11 days B. 20 10/11 days
C. 21 5/6 days D. 21 1/5 days

135. How many numbers between 95 and 200 are there whose digital sum is 9?

E.g. Digital sum of 456 = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15 = 1 + 5 = 6

A. 10 B. 11
C. 12 D. 13

136. If nCr = 28 and nCm = 56, find the maximum value of r × m.

A. 10 B. 18
C. 30 D. None of these

137. The selling price of one cat and two dogs is Rs.7000 and the selling price of two cats and three dogs is  Rs.10000. What is the selling price of a dog?

A. Rs.5000 B. Rs.4000
C. Rs.6000 D. Data Inconsistent

138. Ram reaches his office 10 minutes late in case he drives at a speed of 20% less than the usual peed. If he drives at 8/5th of his usual speed, how early (in minutes) would he reach to his office?

A. 25 B. 15
C. 10 D. 20

139. A container contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 1 : 3. What percentage of the mixture should a butler replace with another mixture that contains wine and water in the ratio 3 : 1 in order to make 100% profit by selling the resultant mixture at the price of the pure wine? (Assume the cost price of water is negligible)

A. 20 B. 25
C. 50 D. 100

140. A train starts from P towards Q, which is 120 km away of from P, at a speed of 45 km/hr. After 20 minutes, another train starts from Q towards P at a speed of 90 km/hr. If the trains meet at M, what is the distance (in km) between P and M?

A. 60 B. 45
C. 50 D. 24

141. The sum of the square of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the square of the number and its reciprocal. How many different rational value(s) of the number is/are possible?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. None of these

142. P and Q can complete a piece of work in 24 days and 36 days respectively. They start working together, but after some days Q leaves the work and P completes the rest of the work in next 4 days. For how many days P and Q worked together?

A. 12 B. 9
C. 8 D. 6

143. Find the equation of the line, perpendicular to the line 2x+ 7y = 15 and passing through (–2, 3).

A. 7x – 2y = 9 B. 7x + 2y = 9
C. –7x + 2y = 20 D. 3x – 4y = 8

144. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 12, 10 and 15 days respectively. They start working together, but C leaves the work x days before the completion of the work and B works for x days. If the work is completed in y days, find the integeral value of y.

A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. Cannot be determined

145. The ratio of the speeds of top three position holders in a marathon is 2 : 4 : 5. Find the ratio of their respective ratio of time to speed.

A. 10 : 5 : 4 B. 100 : 25 : 16
C. 10 : 25 : 16 D. 20 : 12 : 9

146. If a natural number N is doubled and then decreased by 9, the number obtained is a prime number between 1 and 50. Find the number of possible values of N.

A. 11 B. 14
C. 15 D. 10

147. Three sprinters A, B and C participate in a race of 100 meter. If A beats B by 20 meter and B beats C by 20 meter, then find the distance (in meters) by which A beats C in the same race?

A. 30 B. 36
C. 45 D. 25

148. The sum of the first three terms of an arithmetic progression is 30 and their product is 750. Find the 5th term of the A.P?

A. 25 B. –5
C. 25 or –5 D. None of these

149. How many bricks of dimensions 3 cm × 4 cm × 5 cm will be required to fill a cubiodal pit of dimensions 1 m × 3 m × 0.1 m completely?

A. 4000 B. 50000
C. 5000 D. 500000

150. The salary of A is 20% more than the salary of B, which in turn is 25% more than the salary of C. By what percent is the salary of C less than the salary of A?

A. 33.33 B. 40
C. 47.5 D. 50


1 c 2 c 3 b 4 c 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 b 16 b 17 a 18 b 19 d 20 d
21 b 22 b 23 c 24 d 25 c 26 d 27 a 28 b 29 c 30 a
31 a 32 c 33 d 34 a 35 b 36 b 37 d 38 a 39 c 40 a
41 d 42 a 43 c 44 c 45 a 46 c 47 a 48 d 49 c 50 c
51 c 52 b 53 c 54 a 55 b 56 a 57 d 58 b 59 a 60 b
61 c 62 b 63 b 64 d 65 a 66 a 67 b 68 d 69 b 70 b
71 a 72 d 73 d 74 c 75 b 76 a 77 c 78 c 79 b 80 a
81 a 82 d 83 a 84 c 85 d 86 a 87 b 88 b 89 c 90 a
91 d 92 c 93 a 94 d 95 b 96 d 97 b 98 b 99 a 100 c
101 a 102 c 103 d 104 b 105 d 106 c 107 a 108 d 109 c 110 b
111 d 112 d 113 c 114 a 115 d 116 b 117 c 118 c 119 a 120 d
121 c 122 d 123 c 124 b 125 d 126 b 127 d 128 b 129 d 130 a
131 c 132 a 133 d 134 c 135 c 136 c 137 d 138 b 139 c 140 c
141 d 142 a 143 c 144 c 145 b 146 b 147 b 148 c 149 c 150 a