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XAT 2023 Mock Test And Sample Papers

XAT Exam Date 8th January 2023

XAT Mock Test

XAT 2023 Mock Test

Section A - Verbal Ability And Logical Reasoning

Read the following discussion / passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 1 through 4 that follow.

Eliyahu Goldratt’s The Goal: The Process of Ongoing Improvement was first printed in 1984. Ever since it was published the book has sold more than one million copies. Goldratt’s business model is based on two principles. The first principle defines three ways to measure whether or not businesses are achieving the goal of making money. These three measurements are interrelated and easy enough to apply to any process. The three measurements are throughput, or “the rate at which the system generates money through sales;” inventory, or “all the money that the system has invested in purchasing things that it intends to sell;” and operation expense, or “all the money the system spend in order to turn inventory into throughput”. The second principle of Goldratt’s model relates dependent events and statistical fluctuations to the manufacturing process. Dependent events are processes that must first take place before other ones can begin . An example would be a car assembly line. Before the engine is put into the car, the frame must be finished and the steering wheel cannot be attached until the steering column is put into place, and so on. Statistical fluctuations occur when one is unable to precisely predict events or quantities. The book presents an excellent example illustrating this principle. Alex and Jonah sit in a restaurant and Jonah points out that they are able to precisely predict the capacity of the restaurant by counting the available seats. On the other hand, they are unable to predict how long the waiter will need to fulfill their order. This uncertainty is referred to as statistical fluctuations.

Using these two principles we are able to apply them to the traditional business model. This model relies on forecasting and efficiencies. In this system, it is constantly the goal to reduce cost of production and keep processes running at maximum efficiency. In many cases, this model is on a microlevel because it accounts for specific areas of the system instead of focusing on the entire system. For example, it is most efficient to have every worker and all machines running constantly at 100%. If this is the case, a company gets the most out of their investment in the labor force. Companies realize that 100% is a utopian figure and scale it to an acceptable range of 85% to 95%. This efficiency rating is then used to forecast how long it will take for processes to occur and a production schedule can be determined. Oftentimes this schedule is inaccurate and companies miss out on opportunities to make money. Instead of focusing on the actual capacity of the entire system, capacities are determined for individual stages, limiting the company’s ability to make money. The business model illustrated in The Goal: A Process of Ongoing Improvement can remedy this situation. In 1992, Goldratt titled his model the Theory of Constraints (TOC) after a book he wrote with the same title. It suggests that companies should scale their entire production to the process within the system with the lowest capacity; the bottlenecks. This will make the system appear less efficient, because areas in the factory may stay idle if they have a much higher capacity than bottleneck areas. However, implementing this approach will directly add to the bottom line. The Theory of Constraints uses dependent events and statistical fluctuations as its base. Using the three measurements, we can see why limiting production to traditionally inefficient rates actually increases the bottom line. The starting point to understand this concept is throughput. Every time throughput increases, the company’s sales increase, which directly adds to the bottom line. Throughput can only increase if the area of lowest capacity increases its rate of throughput. Running areas of the factory that have higher capacities at 100% will not increase the overall throughput of the system, and sales do not increase. The measure that increases is inventory, because the factory produces parts that cannot be assembled into finished goods until the area of lowest capacity produces enough parts. Inventory is an investment of money and thus subtracts from the bottom line. Keeping large amounts of inventory will further subtract from the bottom line, because warehouse space is costly. Lastly, running every worker and machine at 100% seems efficient but does not help the bottom line by reducing operational expense. The worker has been paid regardless if he or she works at all times. Machines have also been obtained and operational expense does not decrease when the highest efficiency rating is reached. In fact, running every machine at 100% can increase operational expense for machines, because they lose lifetime hours and consume energy. Every machine/worker must adjust its throughput to the throughput of the area with lowest capacity. This assures that operational expense and inventory stay at a desirably low figure. In fact, Goldratt suggests that this is the most efficient way to run any manufacturing business, regardless of what the percent-efficiency rating is of any area.

1. A manufacturing business using the Theory of Constraints in its operations is unlikely to focus on

A. Reducing operational expenses.  B. Ensuring every machine runs at maximum efficiency. 
C. Sales at the expense of lowering the efficiency of some workers.  D. Adding to the bottom line of the firm. 
E. Bottlenecks in the production process.                                                                         (2 Marks)

2. Which of the following can be best defended as essential for the Theory of Constraints to work in a business?

A. A management bent on maximizing the return from their investment in the labor force.  B. Low efficiency of machine/workers. 
C. Clearly defined processes.  D. The ability to exactly forecast demand for finished products. 
E. Large amounts of inventory.                                                                              (2 Marks)

3. Based on the above passage, which of the following statements is best justified? 

A. Instead of the traditional approach of starting with whether a business is making money or not, TOC concentrates on improving the production processes by removing bottlenecks.  B. The Theory of Constraints eschews production schedules and instead depends on precisely predicting events and quantities. 
C. Goldratt’s TOC concentrates on scaling the entire production to the process with the lowest capacity.  D. Goldratt’s model concentrates on bringing up the efficiency of processes that can be characterized as dependent events and leaves statistical fluctuations to be dealt with by traditional forecasting. 
E. The Theory of Constraints concentrates on determining capacities for individual stages instead of focusing on the capacity of the entire system thereby ensuring that the labor and machinery in a business work efficiently.                                                                              (1 Marks)

4. What could be the best defence for “limiting production to traditionally inefficient rates”?

A. TOC concentrates only on specific areas with low capacity in the factory and not on the system as a whole.  B. This way there will always be enough inventory to meet unpredictable demand.
C. Operational expense is not the primary concern of TOC which concentrates on increasing sales.  D. The Theory of Constraints factors in both dependent events and statistical fluctuations.
E. The throughput of the system is determined by the rate of throughput at the area with the lowest capacity in the factory.                                                                              (2 Marks)

5.    Much of our discussion with Churchland relates to the problem of so-called ‘qualia’ – the _______ irreducible subjective components of experience which have been for many years a ________ for new research in cognitive science and philosophy – an orthodoxy that has been _________ recently for using ‘qualia’ as a ________ term that has itself not been adequately analyzed. 

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be :

A. necessarily, metaphor, praised, stoic B. vanishingly, stumble, upheld,  blunt
C. admittedly, marker , championed, subtle  D. supposedly, touchstone, challenged, totemic 
E. decidedly, prop, lauded, potent                                                                                (1 Marks)

Mock Test has below Mentioned Sections

1. Section B - Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making

2. Section C - Data Interpretation and Quantitative Ability

3. Section D - General Knowledge

4. Section E - Essay

5. Answer Key

6. We then looked at valuations of these companies and zeroed in ______ companies whose price earnings multiple was less _______twenty-five; to add to our comfort, we also checked ______ the revenue and earnings growth for the past three years. 

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be : 

A. for, to, on B. for, to, at 
C. on, to, at D. on, than, on
E. at, than, on                                                                              (1 Marks)

7.  _____ you have a doubt or not, it’s always advisable to ferret _____ pertinent research papers when tackling a new project _____your own risk. 

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be: 

A. If, out, for B. Whether, out, at 
C. Whether, for, on  D.  If, for, at
E. Whether, for, at                                                                              (1 Marks)

8.  Pick the odd one out : 

A. restrain: release B. circumscribe: allow 
C. control: liberate D. circumspect: indiscreet
E. upbraid: praise                                                                              (1 Marks)

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for questions 9 and 10:

The use of this work, honoured with a precedent in Aristotle, is nothing less than to give contentment to the appetite of curious and vain wits, as the manner of Mirabilaries is to do; but for two reasons, both of great weight: the one to correct the partiality of axioms and opinions, which are commonly framed only upon common and familiar examples; the other because from the wonders of Nature is the nearest intelligence and passage towards the wonders of art, for it is no more but by following and, as it were, hounding Nature in her wanderings, to be able to lead her afterwards to the same place again. Neither am I of opinion, in this history of marvels, that superstitious narrations of sorceries, witchcrafts, dreams, divinations, and the like, where there is an assurance and clear evidence of the fact, be altogether excluded. For it is not yet known in what cases and how far effects attributed to superstition do participate of natural causes; and, therefore, howsoever the practice of such things is to be condemned, yet from the speculation and consideration of them light may be taken, not only for the discerning of the offences, but for the further disclosing of Nature. Neither ought a man to make scruple of entering into these things for inquisition of truth, as your Majesty hath showed in your own example, who, with the two clear eyes of religion and natural philosophy, have looked deeply and wisely into these shadows, and yet proved yourself to be of the nature of the sun, which passeth through pollutions and itself remains as pure as before. But this I hold fit, that these narrations, which have mixture with superstition, be sorted by themselves, and not to be mingled with the narrations which are merely and sincerely natural. But as for the narrations touching the prodigies and miracles of religions, they are either not true or not natural; and, therefore, impertinent for the story of Nature.

9.  From the passage, which of the following can be inferred about author’s viewpoint regarding the work of art discussed?

A. Wonders of art cannot be conceived without the wonders of Nature. B. Wonders of art are nearest to the wonders of Nature.  
C. Nature might disclose itself in the supernatural yet the latter shouldn’t be used to reveal the former  in a work of art. D.  Intelligence is closest to Nature but is rare in Art. 
E. Effects of Nature on the supernatural are partially known.                                                                              (2 Marks)

10.  Which of the following is the author of the passage mainly concerned with?

A. Presenting a defence of the work of art with respect to its use of supernatural details. B. Pointing out the negatives in a work of art 
C. Stating two positive perspectives of looking at the book or work of art  D.  Presenting an argument about the role of supernatural in Nature
E. Condemning the use of supernatural in the book                                                                              (3 Marks)

Philosophy is the study of phenomena, not real objects. But phenomena are objects nonetheless: in a new, ideal sense. For what we experience in perception is not disembodied qualities, as the empiricists hold; instead, we
encounter a world broken up into chunks. Trees, mailboxes, airplanes, and skeletons lie spread before us, each of them inducing specific moods and sparkling with various subordinate qualities. Since we are speaking solely of the phenomenal realm, it does not matter if these things are hallucinations; even delusions perform the genuine labor of organizing our perception into discrete zones. 

Note already that sensual objects have a different fate from real ones. Whereas real zebras and lighthouses withdraw from direct access, their sensual counterparts do not withdraw in the least. For here is a zebra before me. Admittedly, I can view it from an infinite variety of angles and distances, in sadness and exultation, at sunset or amidst driving rain, and none of these moments exhaust all possible perceptions of it. Nonetheless, the zebra is already there for me as a whole in all its partial profiles; I see right through them and look to it as a unified object. Although some specific visual or conceptual profile of the zebra is needed for us to experience it, the unified sensual zebra lies at a deeper level of perception than these transient, mutable images. Each sensual profile is encrusted onto the unified zebra-object like a patina of brine. Whereas real objects withdraw, sensual objects lie directly before us, frosted over with a swirling, superfluous outer shell. But this difference seems to give sensual objects the opposite causal status of real ones. Given that real objects never touch directly, their causal relations can only be vicarious. But sensual objects, far from being withdrawn, exist side by side in the same perceptual space from the outset, since we encounter numerous phenomena simultaneously. This presents the contrary problem to vicarious causation: namely, why do all the phenomena not instantly fuse together into a single lump? There must be some unknown principle of blockage between them. If real objects require vicarious causation, sensual objects endure a buffered causation in  which their interactions are partly dammed or stunted.

Real objects withdraw into obscure cavernous underworlds, deprived of causal links. Sensual objects, by contrast, are so inclined to interact with their neighbours that we wonder why they fail to do so at every instant. In other
words, the only place in the cosmos where interactions occur is the sensual, phenomenal realm.

11.  According to the ideas in the passage, the following are not true, except

A. Real objects can be viewed from an infinite variety of angles, in varied moods and moments. B. Hallucinations and delusions influence our perception of real objects like trees, mailboxes etc.  
C. Sensual objects persist in the deeper level of perception only and cannot be viewed in melancholy and ecstasy.  D.  A zebra can be perceived even after it withdraws access or touch.
E. The unified sensual image of an object nullifies the existence of its conceptual profile or specific visuals.                                                                              (1 Marks)

12.  Read the sentences given below and choose the option that is best in accordance with the ideas in the passage.

I. Sensual objects fail to interact with their neighbours because they undergo buffered causation.

II. A zebra can be viewed amidst driving rain only when it is right in front of you.

III. Real objects are different from sensual objects as the former denies causal links when it withdraws into vast ambiguous realms.

A. I only B. I and II
C. II and III D. I and III
E. III only                                                                              (1 Marks)

13. In an experiment by Amy Cuddy, Susan Fiske, and Peter Glick, people were asked to imagine that they were McKinsey & Company clients, evaluating consultants on the basis of several profiles. One of the profiles varied two factors: gender and whether the candidate had a child. Discrimination was observed on these two factors. For example, when identified as a mother as opposed to a woman or man whose parental status wasn’t mentioned, the consultant was judged to be significantly less competent and was least likely to be hired or promoted by the participants. The mere mention of a child led people to see the mother as less competent, and this perception did her in.

Which of the following statements does not support the existence of the discrimination described in the above case?

A. Caregiver discrimination suits have now moved into the class action arena. B. In some departments of the federal government, women are readily allowed to work part-time but are then barred from management positions.  
C. In Dukes v. Wal-Mart and in Velez v. Novartis Pharmaceuticals, a case that combined maternal-wall bias with other kinds of discrimination, a jury awarded the plaintiffs more than $250 million. D.  A male state trooper received damages after being denied family medical leave to care for his wife and newborn son.
E. Employees who have taken maternity leaves are rated low on performance review of the period in which leaves have been taken.                                                                              (1.5 Marks)

14.  Our research over the past four years in several North American offices of the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) suggests that it is perfectly possible for consultants and other professionals to meet the highest standards of service and still have planned, uninterrupted time off. Indeed, we found that when the assumption that everyone needs to be always available was collectively challenged, not only could individuals take time off, but their work actually benefited. Our experiments with time off resulted in more open dialogue among team members, which is valuable in itself. But the improved communication also sparked new processes that enhanced the teams’ ability to work most efficiently and effectively.

Which of the following statements, if true, weakens the argument given above? 

A. People in professional services (consultants, investment bankers, accountants, lawyers, IT, and the like) are almost always expected to respond within an hour of receiving a message from a colleague or a client. B. For people in professional services, a 24/7 work ethic is essential for getting ahead and if they take time off then the competition is going to get ahead of them.
C. Most projects involve a lot of daily interaction with the client, leading the consultants to believe that their presence/availability is imperative. D. The demands of consulting projects vary a great deal depending on multiple dimensions and no generalizations can be made about the amount of time a consultant is required to put in.
E. Both A and B                                                                              (1.5 Marks)

15.  When Frederick Herzberg researched the sources of employee motivation during the 1950s and 1960s, he discovered a dichotomy that stills intrigues (and baffles) managers: The things that make people satisfied and
motivated on the job are different in kind from the things that make them dissatisfied. Managed badly, environmental factors make people miserable, and they can certainly be demotivating. But even if managed brilliantly, they don’t motivate anybody to work much harder or smarter. Intrinsic factors motivate and are those that answer people’s deep-seated need for growth and achievement.

Which of the following is most likely to motivate employees? 

A. Reduced work hours per day or lesser number of working days in a week. B. Removal of the most difficult parts of the assignment in order to free the worker to accomplish more of the less challenging assignments.
C. Threat of wage cut or lay-off. D. Increase in the amount of production expected.
E. Introduction of team based games and activities in workplace.                                                                              (1.5 Marks)

16.  Everyone knows that conflict of interest can lead to intentionally corrupt behavior. But numerous psychological experiments show how powerfully such conflicts can unintentionally skew decision making. These experiments suggest that the work world is rife with situations in which such conflicts lead honest, ethical professionals to unconsciously make unsound and unethical recommendations.

Which of the following is least likely to be intentionally corrupt? 

A. Physicians accepting payment for referring patients into clinical trials. B. Lawyers who earn a percentage of their clients’ awards or settlements.
C. Brokers recommending ‘buy’ options when revenue of the brokerage firms is linked to their incentives. D. Teachers recommending guide/reference books when performance of the students is linked to their incentives.
E. Both A and B                                                                              (1.5 Marks)

17.  Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

A. The moral paradox of the invisible hand often seems lost on those who speak loudest in its favor.

B. Insofar as it portrays a conspicuous group of people who act with conscious moral purpose, it bears no resemblance to the phenomenon Smith describes.

C. We might as well call this vision of development the “visible hand” of capitalism, for it has the original theory backward.

D. The merchants of Smith’s world busy themselves seeking profit, while the idle rich build monuments to their own self-importance.

E. Take the stubborn rhetoric of the “jobs creators.”

A. A-E-B-C-D B. A-B-C-D-E
C. C-D-A-E-B D. E-C-D-A-B
E. B-E-C-D-A                                                                              (1 Marks)

18. Milk that is packaged in tetra packs has a longer shelf life than milk that is packaged in plastic packets. It is also observed that supplies of packet milk have greater chances of getting spoilt at the retail store. It makes
business sense for retailers to store and sell milk in tetra packs as the costs in the long run are lower. Customers will also be better served as there is greater safety in buying a product with a longer shelf life.

Which of the following if true most seriously weakens the argument above?

A. In order to reduce cost of storage, milk in packets can be stored along with other perishable items. B. Most dairy products suppliers never package milk in tetra packs.
C. Customers prefer packet milk as they believe it is natural and do not buy milk in tetra packs because it contains artificial agents. D. Customers prefer to buy packet milk for daily consumption and milk in tetra packs for emergencies.
E. Tetra pack packaging costs almost twice as much as ordinary packet packaging.                                                                              (1 Marks)

19.  Mrs. visits the market a little after opening time, usually 11:30 am. She has found some of the best deals in the market and boasts about her economical purchases to neighbours and relatives alike. Last week, Mrs.
X decided to visit Chandni Chowk a little later in the day, at 3 pm. She found the market more crowded than usual and was appalled by the attitude of the shop keepers. She returned disappointed and vowed never to visit the market at 3 pm again.

Mrs. X’s argument proceeds by 

A. assuming that there is only one possible situation that should have occurred and refusing to accept any other possibility. B. generalizing her future actions based on a specific instance.
C. using information that allows application to a specific instance. D. using her experience to reach an inevitable conclusion.
E. assuming that 3:00 pm is the only time at which the attitude of the shopkeepers is affected.                                                                              (1 Marks)

20.  He ________ up the witness through careful questioning and made him contradict his own story. The witness had previously tried to ____ his statement somewhat to show himself in a favorable light, but now he had to _____ out the truth. 

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be: 

A. trotted, trip, trip B. tinged, trot, truss
C. trotted, tinge, trust  D. tripped, tinge, trot
E. tied, trip, trust                                                                              (2 Marks)

21.  Few sentences are given below continuously. Identify the best sequence of punctuations among the given options. (The rule of capitalization has been ignored in the passage given below). Note: the arrows in the options indicate text that would be within the punctuations. 

the greater the reliance on pre-capitalist economic relations then the more successful capitalism is in raising the rate of surplus value let us note that if the process of relying on household production were carried to its limit the value of variable capital would disappear and with it wage labor

A. ,→.→. →,→,→,→. B. , →,→. →,→,→.
C. :→, →- →, →. →. D. , →,→.→: →.
E. , →,→.→; →.                                                                              (1 Marks)

22.  My parents wished to _________ me from taking up the project, but realising that my mind was made up ceased to ____________

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be:

A. convince, persuade B. dissuade, remonstrate
C. persuade, dissuade D. prevent, hamper
E. reason, interfere                                                                              (1 Marks)

23. Choose the odd one :

A. Half a bubble off plumb: Children in an amusement park. B. Square deal: Legal contract.
C. Run a make on: Tracking a suspect D. Haul over the coals: Speed up a process
E. In the bag: Cinch a business deal                                                                              (2 Marks)

24.  Read the following sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

I. If we are concerned about others on the basis of a conscientious desire to do our duty or adhere to certain moral principles, then our concern for them is mediated by moral thinking, and someone, therefore, who cares about the welfare of others without having to rely on or be guided by explicit moral principles (or thinking) is more connected with those others than someone who acts only on the basis of such mediating principles (or thought).

II. So the ethic of care or caring stresses connection with others both in what it says about the normative basis of morality and in what it says about the ways in which moral goodness shows itself within a morally good life; and by the same token, traditional Kantian or contractarian views of rights and justice give a double importance to separateness or autonomy from others through the grounds they adduce for moral/political obligation and the stress they place on being guided by moral principles or judgments within the moral life.

III. In an ethic of care, therefore, caring is treated as a natural virtue in Hume’s sense, but this further highlights the way in which such an ethic involves us in connection with, rather than separateness from, other people.

IV. The ethic of justice and rights tells us to regulate our actions or lives in accordance with certain general moral principles (or explicitly moral insights), whereas the ethic of care stresses the good of a concern for the welfare of others that is unmediated by principles, rules, or judgments that tell us that we ought to be concerned about their welfare. 

E. IV, II, III, I                                                                              (2 Marks)

25.  Read the following sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

I. But Jana Kobzova, an analyst at the European Council on Foreign Relations, said she thought the no vote would make eurosceptic politicians in other countries less willing to rock the boat in future ballots.

II. In an ill-tempered press conference following Tuesday night’s vote, she railed at the “irresponsible” and “populist” politics of the SaS, which she said had failed to realise that “we are a small and exportoriented economy, and we need partners around us”.

III. The big question analysts are now asking is whether Slovakia’s disobedience will become contagious, emboldening other eurozone parliaments to follow its lead and say no next time the bailout mechanism – the European financial stability facility – needs another cash injection.

IV. The soon-to-be-ex-prime minister, Iveta Radicova, was in no doubt that it was the SaS party, a member of her own ruling coalition, that had sabotaged the bill and caused the government to collapse.

V. Raoul Ruparel, an economist at Open Europe, a thinktank campaigning for reform of the EU, said : “Even if Slovakia’s no vote becomes a yes vote by the end of the week, I do think it will encourage those countries that have already expressed their reservations about the lack of control over the guarantees they have offered – the Netherlands, Finland, Germany and Austria in particular – to be more vocal in the future.”

VI. “The SaS are the losers in this. The vote will go through without them later, but they will lose their place in government,” she said. “Politicians in other countries may be more wary of following their lead lest they too lose their jobs.”

A. IV, VI, II, III, I, V B. V, VI, III, II, I, IV
C. IV, II, III, V, I, VI. D. III, I, VI, V, IV, II
E. I, IV, III, II, V, VI                                                                              (2 Marks)

26.  When polled about their opinion of global warming, only 34 percent of the members of the T party believed that it is happening. Political commentators now caution that if the next president of the nation is elected from the T party, there will be no progress in the dealing with the issue of global warming.

The political commentators’ argument above is based on which of the following assumptions?

A. The country had introduced some measures to curb global warming in the past. B. The T party is becoming more popular with the voters and their candidate has a good chance of becoming president.
C. Members of the T party on the whole do not consider global warming to be an important election issue. D. The presidential candidate from the T party will endorse the views of the majority of party members.
E. There are no rival factions within the party.                                                                              (1 Marks)


Section B - Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making

Eight candidates –Apurv, Ekansh, Biloza, Rajat, Neeru, Preeti, Sharad, and Hasan –applied for a job at KPL Ltd. Not all of them got selected for the job. The selection process had three rounds and three questions were asked in each round. A candidate had to compulsorily answer all nine questions. Each correct answer fetched a candidate 3 points and each incorrect answer resulted in a penalty of 1 point. The score of a candidate in a round is the sum of the points obtained in that round. The final scores of the eight candidates at the end of the three rounds are shown in the table given below.

Candidate Apurv Ekansh Biloza Rajat Neeru Preeti Sharad Hasan
Total Score 15 19 11 15 11 19 15 11

It is also known that:
(i) No two candidates had the same break-up of scores for three rounds. E.g. if candidate ‘X’scored 15 points as 5+1+9, then no other candidate scored 15 points as 5+1+9 or 1+5+9 etc. Somebody else scoring 15 points must have scored as 5+5+5 or 9–3+9 etc.
(ii) None of the three scores (of three different rounds) of Apurv was equal to any of the three scores of Preeti.
(iii) It can be said with certainty by looking at the score break-up of all the candidates that Neeru and a particular candidate scored equal points in two of the three rounds.
(iv) The sum of the scores of Biloza and a particular candidate was the same in all three rounds.
(v) Rajat answered all the questions correctly in exactly one round.

27.  If the candidates who got a negative score in any of the three rounds were rejected, then who among the following were definitely rejected?

A. Biloza and Neeru B. Biloza and Hasan
C. Apurv and Neeru D. Hasan and Sharad
E. Preeti and Sharad                                                                              (2 Marks)

28.  If the candidates who answered all three questions correctly in at least one of the three rounds were selected, then who among the following could have been rejected?

A. Apurv and Neeru B. Neeru and Hasan
C. Rajat and Sharad D. Ekansh and Preeti
E. Biloza and Neeru                                                                              (2 Marks)

29.  Who answered all three questions correctly in two of the three rounds? 

A. Preeti B. Biloza
C. Sharad D. Rajat
E. Both (A) and (C)                                                                              (1 Marks)

Five countries –India, Pakistan, Australia, Kenya and England –participated in a Cricket tournament. Each country playe exactly two matches against each of the other four countries. A match between two countries was never played in a third country. E.g. An India-Pakistan match could be played in either India or Pakistan but not in Australia, Kenya or any other country. It is also known that:

(i) Kenya did not play both the matches against any country at home (in Kenya).
(ii) India and England were the only countries who played both the matches against exactly two countries at home.
(iii) One of the India-Kenya matches was played in Kenya.
(iv) Both the Pakistan-Kenya matches were played in Pakistan.
(v) The two India-Australia matches were played in two different countries.

30.  There were exactly five pairs of teams between whom the two matches were played in two different countries. If exactly three matches were played in Kenya, then what was the number of matches played in Pakistan?

A. 2 B. 5
C. 4 D. 3
E. None of these                                                                              (2 Marks)

31.  How many pairs of teams were there between whom the two matches were played in two different countries? 

A. 3 B. 2
C. 6 D. 5
E. 4                                                                              (3 Marks)

32. How many matches were played in Australia? 

A. 3 B. 5
C. 6 D. 2
E. None of these                                                                              (1 Marks)

For right or wrong reasons, Company XYZ always made the headlines in the financial dailies and business magazines during the late 1990s. The company was headed by the 60 year old managing director Mr. Preston. He was popularly known as a ‘turnaround specialist’and had successfully turned around many sick companies within the XYZ group. By the end of financial year 1999, XYZ managed to report rising profits for four consecutive years after incurring its first ever loss of Rs 420 million in 1995. However, by the third quarter ended September 30, 2000, Preston was a worried man.

XYZ was once again on the downward path. The company’s nine months net profits of Rs 105.5 million in 2000 was substantially lower than the Rs 209.8 million recorded in 1999. Its staff costs of Rs 1.29 million (23% of net sales) was also higher as compared to Rs 1.18 million incurred in the previous year. In September 2000, XYZ was heading towards a major labour dispute as XYZ Mazdoor Union had requested the West Bengal government to intervene in what it considered to be a major downsizing exercise.

The company provided employment to over 15,000 people in its manufacturing and sales operations throughout India. However, throughout its history, XYZ was plagued by perennial labor problems with frequent strikes and lockouts at its manufacturing facilities. The company incurred huge employee expenses (22% of net sales in 1999). A Competitor was far more cost-effective with salaries of its 5,000 strong workforce comprising just 5% of its turnover. When the company was in the red in 1995 for the first time, XYZ restructured the entire board and sent in a team headed by Preston. Soon after he stepped in several changes were made in the management.

Indians, who held key positions in top management, were replaced with expatriates and Preston took over as managing director. They made several key changes, including a complete overhaul of the company’s operations and key departments.

Within two months of Preston taking over, XYZ decided to sell its headquarter building in Calcutta for
Rs 195 million, in a bid to stem losses. The company shifted wholesale, planning & distribution, and the commercial department to XYZnagar, despite opposition from the trade unions. The management team implemented a massive revamping exercise in which more than 250 managers and their juniors were asked to quit.

33. “Profits may return, but honor is difficult to regain.”was a line constantly repeated as trade union members in all locations of XYZ threatened to go on strike. What was the best course of action for Preston?

A. Ignore the trade union members as there was no legally binding agreement between the company and the union. B. Withdraw his decision to shift specific departments to XYZnagar and call back the employees who were asked to quit.
C. Enter into negotiations with the trade union members and draw up a long-term bipartite agreement with them. D. Enter into a discussion with the trade union members and agree to take back workers if they provide a guarantee on performance.
E. Enter into a discussion with the trade union members and work on convincing them of the validity of your decision.                                                                              (3 Marks)

34.  Considering the low performance of XYZ in 2000, the group’s international management has decided to replace Mr. Preston with someone less controversial. This decision can be said to be

A. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston has helped turnaround the group’s performance in the years that he has been heading it. B. Correct, because Mr. Preston lacks an understanding of the Indian work culture and ethic.
C. Correct, because Mr. Preston has shown favouritism in the appointment of managers in higher positions. D. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston has been an unbiased leader and no one can replace his charismatic personality.
E. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston is the only one who can stand his ground against the trade union.                                                                              (2 Marks)

35.  “However, throughout its history, XYZ was plagued by perennial labor problems with frequent strikes and lockouts at its manufacturing facilities.”This could be a result of : 

1. A strong but not well-enforced resources and labour relations policy.

2. A weak human resources and labour relations policy.

3. A strong labour union and weak management.

4. The decision to move the wholesale planning and distribution to XYZnagar.

A. Only 1 B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
E. All of the given statements.                                                                              (3 Marks)

36.  Given the information in the caselet, how could the restructuring of the board been better handled? 

A. Communication of the decisions to the employees –use of a softer approach and more time given to implementing the decision. B. Communication of problems with employees followed by a participatory approach in decision making.
C. Use of a mediator who would convey the managerial decisions to the trade union workers. D. Hiring of an external human resources consultant to share the managerial decisions with the employees and ensure implementation.
E. Hiring of an external human resources consultant to help initiate an organizational development process and introduce change.                                                                              (2 Marks)

The CFO of a large oil & gas company contacted the VP-HR because of a significant increase in employee complaints, particularly related to harassment and wrongful termination. In addition, the VP-HR himself was concerned about the increasing amount of turnover at several sites, which reportedly had been fueled by inappropriate behavior on the part of field hands. Initial investigations revealed that there were a large number of inexperienced supervisors who had been promoted solely because of turnover, a clear lack of awareness of harassment/ discrimination laws and of appropriate offensive behavior response strategies, and the absence of effective screening during the hiring and promotion process.

37.  What is the immediate course of action for the VP-HR to take? 

A. Issue a warning to employees against whom complaints have been received. B. Start work on a more effective hiring and promotion mechanism, train the present supervisors and warn those who have behaved inappropriately.
C. Work on tackling each issue by first understanding the existing liability, developing a risk management system to close gaps and prevent future liabilities. D. Hire an external consultant to further study the issues and present an action plan.
E. Follow a “carrot-and-stick”approach –punish offenders and reward good performers.                                                                              (1 Marks)

38.  Assuming that nonsupervisory employees often work 12 hour shifts, what would be the best way that an Appropriate Workplace Behaviour training could be imparted to them?

A. Ask the employees to come in on a weekend and schedule the training programme during this time. B. Schedule a 20-day training programme during which the employees would be expected to stay an extra hour after work for their training.
C. Introduce an in-house training programme that would be conducted over a period of 15-days every six months. D. Introduce an easily accessible training programme whose modules could be accessed online/through video; with follow up done by HR.
E. Take the employees on a 10-day outbound trip and include a team building process along with the training programme.                                                                              (2 Marks)

Company X has decided to go in for a change in its organization structure and with that a change in the culture. Preliminary studies have shown that the organization and its employees are fast approaching a stagnation point and a way to move forward is towards change. Informal news of this change has been making the rounds of the organisation for many months –most of the speculation has been negative and rumours are that downsizing will be the first outcome. Human Resources (HR) feels that it is time to do something about this level of speculation as it is creating an unhealthy environment and distrustful employees.

39.  What should HR do? Choose the option that puts together the courses of action in the most logical manner.

1. Employees given a road map of the entire change process.

2. Senior management to decide upon the rate and degree of change the organization can absorb.

3. Road map of change –the processes involved and timelines to be drawn up.

4. Identification of the gaps that exist and need to be filled before a major organizational change.

5. Scheduling a comprehensive employee development programme to handle the change.

A. 24351 B. 24315
C. 42315 D. 42351
E. 43215                                                                              (3 Marks)

40.  Given the information in the caselet and the inferences you can make from it, which of the following equation would be the best to ensure a smooth transition? (> would mean greater/more important)

A. Number of employees before change< Number of employees after change B. Number of employees before change> Number of employees after change
C. Timely News = Credible News. D. News from media > news from management.
E. News from management > News from the media.                                                                              (2 Marks)

A pharmaceutical company has called in a consultant for conflict resolution. The company has traditionally seen conflict between the Research & Development (R&D) department and the Finance department. R&D feels that Finance is too stuck on systems and procedures and needs to cut some slack for special circumstances and during emergencies. Finance does not trust R&D. They feel the department takes things too easy and does not work enough to justify the funds that they continually ask for. This has created a difficult work environment with executives from both departments refusing to cooperate with each other and the managers playing their own political game. The consultant has put down a list of problems after his preliminary discussion with both departments. 

1. Unclear or inadequate administrative procedures

2. Inadequate people resources

3. Uncertain project schedules

4. Conflicting responsibilities

5. Conflicting goals and priorities.

41.  Addressing which three of the problems listed above would resolve the conflict described in the passage? 

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3 and 5
E. 3, 4 and 5                                                                              (2 Marks)

Vivek Chandra is the Director of a large Indian NGO. Chandra has been heading the NGO for the last two years and has managed to establish himself as a caring and jovial boss. Of late, though there have been disturbing behavioral changes –lapses of silence, anger and frustration. Chandra had recently lost a member of his family and the staff felt that this was his coping mechanism. They assured themselves that soon he would be back to being his old self. However, in the last month his behavior has only worsened. There have been disagreements with the Governing Board followed by angry outbursts. But the most disturbing fact is that a day ago Chandra was found drinking in his office. The Board was immediately informed.

42.  The Governing Board has taken this as a very serious offence and is considering action. Which of these would be the best course?

A. Call for a meeting without Chandra and unanimously vote for him to leave. B. Call an emergency meeting and ask Chandra to take an immediate leave of absence until a further decision can be taken.
C. Call for a psychologist to counsel Chandra in his office and hope that he recovers immediately. D. Speak to the staff, gather evidence of Chandra’s misdemeanors so it can be presented as a case against his continuance as Director.
E. Understand Chandra’s predicament and tell him that you will support him as long as he does not drink in office anymore.                                                                              (1 Marks)

The name Haagen-Dazs was invented by Reuben and Rose Mattus in 1961, because they thought it looked Scandinavian, and because Denmark was known for dairy products. Fifty years on, Haagen-Dazs sells in over 80 countries. Its revenues were over $750 million in 2011. In the global ice cream market, Haagen-Dazs has only a two per cent market share, while Unilever has 18 per cent and Nestle 14 per cent. But in the premium category,
Haagen-Dazs is ahead of Unilever’s Ben & Jerry’s brand and Nestle’s Movenpick.

Haagen-Dazs created the “premium ice cream” category with its rich ice cream made with exotic ingredients such as Belgian chocolate and vanilla beans from Madagascar. It reinforces the message of indulgence through its prizewinning advertising campaigns and new flavours.

For Haagen-Dazs, the temptation to expand operations to China was great. Despite the traditional lack of dairy in the Chinese diet, demand was rising as the population gained exposure to Hong Kong since 1984 despite the fact that venturing on to the mainland in 1996 introduced a completely different set of challenges.

One of the most appealing was to direct the brand at the local hunger for luxury goods that were markers of economic status. Luxury brands such as Louis Vuitton and Cartier lined the high-end shopping areas of Shanghai
and Beijing. With increased buying power and a diminishing stigma on displays of wealth, upper-class Chinese appeared well situated to appreciate Haagen-Dazs’ themes of indulgence and self-gratification.

In carving out a brand identity specific to China, Haagen-Dazs decided not to compete with incumbent ice cream brands, and instead aligned itself with western icons of luxury. As Pedro Man, Vice President of the company’s
Asia-Pacific operations, told reporters in 1998: “What Rolls-Royce is to cars... Haagen-Dazs is to ice cream.”

43.  Which of the following was not done by Haagen-Dazs in order to enter the Chinese market ? 

A. The company created a premium ice cream category made with exotic ingredients. B. The organisation positioned itself as a luxury brand to appeal to the Chinese market.
C. The brand competed against other international brands and not the local Chinese brands. D. The brand created a retail environment to cater to the tastes of the Chinese customer.
E. Both (A) and (D)                                                                              (1 Marks)

44. From the information given in the case, which of the following marketing strategies would not help Haagen- Dazs in establishing a strong brand in China?

A. Introduc new products for the Chinese practice of giving gifts B. Establish shops in premium locations to maintain the premium image of the ice-cream brand
C. Ensure quality of the product by maintaining sole control on the distribution of its own products D. Build luxurious cafes to create a high-end experience for the Chinese customer
E. Invest in building strong relationships with the Chinese trade and commerce industry                                                                              (1 Marks)

45. Which of the following options does not correctly present the unique features of the Chinese consumer?

A. An increased ability to buy B. The Chinese tradition of accepting imports from foreign countries
C. Increasing acceptance of displays of wealth D. Increasing flexibility in the traditional Chinese diet
E. The obsession with luxury/high-end products                                                                               (1 Marks)

46. X has recently joined at the helm of a public sector bank that has its origins in Gujarat. Unlike his predecessor Y, who hailed from the same state, X is from Karnataka. The bank has been profitable right through its 100-year existence. The management’s relation with unions is far better than that at many peer banks. Much of the groundwork – rebranding, initiation of a core banking solution – has been done by Y whose forte was human resources. A week after joining the organization, X called a meeting of the top 5% performers in the bank. Most of these performers seemed content with the way they were being treated by the company. In the same week, X also met with employees in the middle management who had been in the organization for no more than 5 years. X was puzzled to find that the number of such employees was considerably small. He also came to know that the average age of managers in the organization is 56 years—ageism was not a problem in this organization for sure! Things seem to be rolling along just fine and after a few weeks X has begun to wonder whether it’s not advisable “not to try and improve what’s already better” and simply be on the lookout for any possible disturbance to this fine-tuned system.

Which of the following statements identifies the next logical step for X? 

A. X, given that he’s not a local, needs to make more of an effort than his predecessor to connect with and
motivate employees in the bank.
B. X needs to only look into the operational aspects and financials of the business and does not need to pay
any attention to HR functions.
C. X needs to put in a serious effort into leadership development programs within the organization. D. X needs to ensure that the top performers in the bank are given new responsibilities and challenges.
E. X should continue with whatever has been established by Y and does not need to do anything else.                                                                              (1 Marks)

Mr. Mittal, a business tycoon, plans to organize his daughter’s marriage ceremony at Exotica resort which is located in Lagoon island. He appoints Ekaant, a wedding planner, to look after all the arrangements of the marriage.
One of the vital tasks of Ekaant is to facilitate the transportation of the guests to the wedding venue from mainland. After market research, he zeroed in three airplane service providers – Ming Airlines, Ding Airlines and Sing Airlines – for the purpose. Each airplane service provider offers a distinct type of airplane. The total cost of each of the three airlines consists of three kinds of costs – variable fuel cost per airplane per kilometer, variable passenger cost and fixed cost per plane. The fixed cost of the airplane offered by Sing Airlines is $500. The maximum passenger capacity of B547 is 30. The variable fuel cost of airplane offered by Ding Airlines is $1.1 per kilometer. The variable passenger cost of airplane B547 is $10 per passenger. The fixed cost of airplane A549 is $600. The airplane of Sing Airlines can carry at most 20 passengers. The variable fuel cost of C106 is $1per kilometer. The airplanes of Ding Airlines and Ming Airlines are A549 and B547 respectively. The variable fuel cost of the airplane of Ming Airlines is $1.5 per kilometer. The fixed cost of airplane of Ming Airlines is $700. The airplane of Ding Airlines can carry at most 25 passengers. The variable passenger cost of A549 is $20 per passenger and that of C106 is $30 per passenger.

47. If the island is located at a distance of 200 km from mainland and the number of guests is 20, what will be the travelling cost by A549? 

A. $1220 B. $2220
C. $3000 D. $3300
E. $3330                                                                               (1 Marks)

48. Apart from Ekaant and his assistant, there are 33 other guests who are to attend the marriage ceremony. The island is located at a distance of 100 km from the mainland. The travelling cost will be the cheapest if

A. All the guests are to be taken by B547. B. All the guests are to be taken by the airplane of Ding Airlines.
C. 30 guests are to be taken by the airplane of Ming Airlines and 5 guests by C106. D. 15 guests are to be taken by B547 and 20 guests by the airplane of Sing Airlines.
E. Both (A) and (B)                                                                              (1.5 Marks)

24. If Ekaant chooses A549 as his preferred airplane, the number of guests is N and the island is located at a distance of 500 km from mainland, then for which of the following values of N, will his decision be wise?

A. 12 B. 30
C. 45 D. 60
E. None of the above                                                                               (1.5 Marks)

Section C - Data Interpretation and Quantitative Ability

50.  501 different letters are placed inside 501 different envelopes. If for every letter there is a corresponding pre-addressed envelope, what is the probability that exactly 4 out of these 501 letters are placed incorrectly? (2 Marks)

XAT Mock Test

51.  Given that product of a two-digit number AB and 74 is a three-digit number EEE, where A, B and E are distinct non zero digits. What is the value of ‘E’? 

A. 9 B. 7
C. 6 D. 8
E. None of the above                                                                              (1 Marks)

52  Two circles with centers C1and C2 and radius 12 cm and 3 cm respectively, touch each other at point A. AB is a common tangent to the circles which intersects another common tangent CD at point B, as shown in the figure below. What is the length of the line segment AB?

XAT Mock Test

A. 10 cm B. 7.5 cm
C. 5 cm D. 9 cm
E. 6 cm                                                                               (1 Marks)

53.  There were 320 students in the premises of an ongoing college fest. A student can take part in any of the three activities —Dance, Debate and Drama. Ten students took part in all the three activities and 201 students took part in Debate. Number of students who took part in Dance and Drama but not in Debate is one-third the number of students who took part only in Drama. Number of students who took part in Dance and Debate but not in Drama is equal to the number of students who took part in Debate and Drama but not in Dance and is 1 more than the number of students who took part only in Debate. Twenty-nine students just came to enjoy the performances. Number of students who took part in Dance is 27 more than the number of students who took part in Drama. Find the number of students who took part in Dance. 

A. 54 B. 45
C. 137 D. 154
E. 68                                                                              (1 Marks)

54. Seven one day matches are to be played between India and Australia in an ODI series. In a single match probability of India winning is 5/9. The result of each of the matches will always be conclusive i.e. there will be no draw and the team winning at least 4 matches out of the 7 will be the winner of the series. Find the probability that India will win the series.

XAT Mock Test

XAT Mock Test

55.  In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC. An equilateral triangle A′ BC is drawn such that the line joining A and A′cuts side BC at point D. Which of the following cannot be the sum of the measures of ∠DAC and ∠DA′C ? 

A. 75° B. 60°
C. 90° D. 120°
E. All of these                                                                               (1 Marks)

56.  Total number of bananas with three friends –Moti, Sumit and Manky –is 10. The sum of the reciprocals of the number of bananas with the three friends is 1. If the number of bananas with each of the three friends is an integer, which of the following could be the difference between the number of bananas with Moti and Sumit? 

A. 2 B. 3
C. 0 D. 1
E. Either (A) or (C)                                                                               (2 Marks)

Answer questions nos. 59 to 62 based on the following information.

The line graphs given below show the Revenue Generated (in Rs. crores), Profit (as a percentage of Net Expenditure) and Expenditure on Raw Material (as a percentage of Net Expenditure) for a company on monthly basis from January 2011 to June 2011.

XAT Mock Test

XAT Mock Test

Note:Revenue Generated = Net Expenditure + Profit

57.  In which month was the absolute percentage change in Net Expenditure over the previous month the highest? 

A. February B. March
C. April D. May
E. June                                                                               (1 Marks)

58.  “O-Expenditure” is the Expenditure (in Rs. crores) on things other than Raw Material. What was the maximum value of O-Expenditure in any month during the given period? 

A. 341 B. 464.94
C. 442.8 D. 399
E. 430.92                                                                               (1 Marks)

59.  What was the average monthly Expenditure (in Rs. crores) on Raw Material in the given period? 

A. 111.9 B. 112.8
C. 111.4 D. 110.6
E. 112.4                                                                               (2 Marks)

60.  In how many months was the increase in Profit over the previous month more than 100%?

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. None of these                                                                               (1 Marks)

61. Seven trees – T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6 and T7 – are planted in a park which is in the shape of a quadrilateral. T1, T2, T3 and T4 are at the four corners of the park in an anticlockwise direction. T5 is at the point of 
intersection of the diagonals of the park and is also equidistance from T2 and T4. T6 is on the diagonal T1T3 such that T5 is equidistance from T1and T6. T7 is on one of the sides of the park such that T4, T6 and T7 are
collinear and the ratio of the distances between T2 and T4 to T3 and T4 is same as that of T2 and T7 to T3 and T7. If the distance between T1 and T2 is 72 m and T4T5 : T4T3 = 3 : 4, then find the distance between T4 and T7.

A. 90.8 m B. 86.4 m
C. 120 m D. 100.8 m
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (2 Marks)

62. A list of 9 natural numbers, in which 2 is the smallest number, has two modes. The range of the data of the list is 9. The mean, the median and the largest mode of the list are equal. If 2, 3 and 10 appear once in the list,
then how many such list(s) is/are possible?

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1 Marks)

63. Three business partners Aka, Bhika and Chika traveled from city A to cities P, Q and R respectively to attend business meetings. They took 5 hours, 3 hours and 6 hours respectively for their travels. After their meetings, they decided to meet in city Z. They took 9 hours, 6 hours and 1 hour respectively to reach city Z from their respective cities. If AP + AQ + AR = 200 km and PZ + QZ + RZ = 310 km, and the usual speeds of all the partners are integers, then find the speed (in km/hr) of Bhika.

A. 23 B. 17
C. 29 D. 31
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1.5 Marks)

64. Rohan and Vikas decide to play a game which involves flipping of a coin. In a round, Rohan gives 5 to Vikas if the coin shows tail whereas Vikas gives 2 to Rohan if the coin shows head. They start the game with a biased coin in which head is likely to occur 50% more times than tail If initially, each of the two has 50, then what is the probability that at the end of 10th round Vikas would have at least 80 rupees in all? 

A. (463X28)/510 B. (467X28)/510
C. (469X28)/510 D. (461X28)/510
E. (465X28)/510                                                                               (2 Marks)

The bar graph given below shows the number of units (in ‘00) of four articles – P, Q, R and S – sold by Zectton Ltd. during the period 2007 to 2011.

XAT Mock Test

65. In 2007, the per unit price of the articles P, Q, R and S was 9, 7, 5 and 10 respectively. If the price of each of the articles increased by 10% p.a. in subsequent years, find the total sales revenue (in ) generated by the given articles in 2009. 

A. 22950 B. 22688
C. 22848 D. 22668
E. None of the above                                                                               (1 Marks)

66. The per unit price of each of the articles was same in 2008. The per unit price of each of the articles in 2009 was 20% more than that in 2008. If the per unit price of each of the articles in 2011was the average of the prices in 2008 and 2009, by approximately what percent sales revenue in 2009 was more than that in 2011?

A. 9.8% B. 8.8%
C. 7.8% D. 7.2%
E. 6.8%                                                                               (1 Marks)

67. The per unit price of the articles P, Q, R and S was 18, 12, 16 and 20 respectively during the given period. If the revenue generated by articles P, Q, R and S during the period was p, q, r and s respectively, then which of the following is true?

A. s > p > r > q B. q > p > s > r
C. p > s > q > r D. p > s > r > q
E. p > r > s > q                                                                               (1 Marks)

68. 512 players from 30 different countries participated in a Billiards single round elimination tournament. Players were divided into N teams of two players each. In the first round, each team played a match against exactly one of the other teams. Winners of the first round advanced to the next round whereas the losers got eliminated. Same went on in the next rounds. Find the total number of matches played by a team which lost into the semi-finals of the tournament.

A. 10 B. 9
C. 8 D. 7
E. None of the above                                                                               (1 Marks)

69. Prakash purchased some books of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry to distribute among the children in an orphanage. Each of the Physics books was priced at 120, that of Mathematics at 100 and that of Chemistry at 150. The number of Physics books was more than that of Chemistry but less than that of Mathematics. If the amount paid for purchasing the books was 1,800, then which of the following could be the number of books  purchased?

A. 15 B. 18
C. 21 D. 24
E. 12                                                                               (1 Marks)

70. Sunil and Ajay went to a pub and ordered two cocktails, each of which comprised of bear, vodka and wine in the ratio 2 : 1 : 2. Sunil, a regular boozer, fooled Ajay by drinking 17 ml from his drink and replacing the same quantity by soda. If after replacement, the percentage of wine in Ajay’s glass was 30%, what was the quantity (in ml) of drink served in each cocktail? 

A. 51 B. 68
C. 85 D. 40
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1 Marks)

Question numbers 73 and 74 are followed by two statements labelled as I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the questions. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below :

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

C. Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient, but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question.

D. Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is necessary to answer the question.

71. What is the area of the triangle whose two vertices are (1, 2) and (4, 6) and the third vertex lies on the line 4x – 3y = –10?

I. The third vertex lies in the second quadrant.  
II. The x-coordinate of the third vertex is –4. (1 Marks)

72. The integers a, b, c, d and e are in geometric progression and c < d. Is a < e?

I. Alternate terms are positive and negative  
II. All terms are positive. (1 Marks)

73. Tolu, Molu and Golu start running simultaneously around a triangular track from point ‘A’. Tolu and Molu run in the anti-clockwise direction at speeds of 5 m/sec and 8 m/sec respectively, whereas Golu runs in the clockwise direction at a speed of 6 m/sec. What is the ratio of the time after that they meet for the first time at the starting point to that of the first time at any point on the track? 

A. 1 : 1 B. 2 : 1
C. 3 : 1 D. 3 : 2
E. Data Insufficient                                                                               (1 Marks)

74. A biscuit manufacturing company, Critannia, sold its two brands ‘Bourbon’ and ‘30-70’ in May 2012. Each packet of ‘Bourbon’ was sold at 20% loss whereas each packet of ‘30-70’ was sold at 30% profit. In the whole transaction, there was neither profit nor loss. If it had sold each packet of ‘Bourbon’ at 10% profit and that of ‘30-70’ at 25% profit, the company would have made a profit of 0.8 million. If the ratio of number of packets sold of Bourbon to that of ‘30-70’ was 6 : 5, what was the difference between the cost price of per packet of Bourbon and ‘30-70’?

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 2.5
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1 Marks)

75. One of the sides of a right angled triangle is 39 cm. The length of the altitude drawn from the vertex which contains right angle is x cm and the length of its circum radius is y cm. If length (in cm) of each of the sides of the triangle is an integer not more than 48, then find the numerical value of x × y.

A. 240 B. 260
C. 270 D. 364
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1 Marks)

The following pie charts show data related to nativity and place of birth of the population aged 25 or older with a Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree of the USA in 2012.

XAT Mock Test

76. If the population of Korea born Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree holders aged 25 or older of the USA was 1,14,000, then what was the ratio of the population of Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree holders aged 25 or older from Latin America to that of from China? 

A. 10 : 7 B. 100 : 49
C. 8 : 5 D. 13: 6
E. Cannot be determined                                                                               (1 Marks)

77. The ratio of the native and the foreign born Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree holders aged 25 or older in the USA was 71 : 14. If the total population of Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree holders  aged 25 or older in the USA was 2,04,000, find the population of India born Science and Engineering Bachelor’s degree holders aged 25 or older in the USA.

A. 6872 B. 19600
C. 6468 D. 8464
E. 9664                                                                               (1 Marks)

78. A carat, which is in the shape of a right circular cone, is divided into 27 pieces of same thickness by making cuts parallel to the base surface. If the semi vertical angle is 45°, the combined total surface area of the pieces is how many times more than the total surface area of the carat?

A. XAT Mock Test B. XAT Mock Test
C. XAT Mock Test D. XAT Mock Test
E. None of the above                                                                               (1.5 Marks)

Section D  - General Knowledge

79.India’s first financial super market aimed at cross-selling non-standard banking products recently has been opened in which of the following cities?

A. Jaipur B. Ahmedabad
C. Hyderabad D. Chennai
E. Nagpur                                                                             

80. According to the Global Competitiveness Report 2012-2013, which of the following countries tops the overall ranking?

A. China B. Sweden
C. Italy D. Japan
E. Switzerland                                                                             

81. Project Big Green has been initiated by which of the following companies?

A. Microsoft B. Apple
C. Infosys D. IBM
E. None of the above    

82. Who among the following is the current president of Nasscom?

A. Natarajan Chandrasekaran B. Krishnakumar Natarajan
C. Aprup Sengupta D. Som Mittal
E. None of the above    

83. Recently, the ‘Bloomberg Markets’ magazine has included an Indian personality in the list of 50 most influential people in the finance category. Name the personality.

A. Mamta Banerjee B. Mayawati
C. Uma Bharti D. Indra Nooyi
E. Sonia Gandhi    

84. Wipro BPO, the business process outsourcing arm of Wipro Technologies, has opened its first rural centre in which of the following states recently?

A. Karnataka B. Tamil Nadu
C. Punjab D. Maharashtra
E. Haryana    

85.  More than three lakh trees in which of the following state are recently under the attack of Leptocybe Invasa, a gall insect, which causes swelling in the veins of the leaves of young trees and hampers their growth? 

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Punjab
C. Haryana D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Tamil nadu    

86. Who among the following was appointed the President of Standard & Poor’s recently?

A. Dellep Nayar B. Douglas Peterson
C. Michelle Roberto D. Jonathan Dennison
E. None of the above    

87. Which country had introduced first polymer currency notes?

A. Australia B. Switzerland
C. France D. USA
E. None of the above    

88. The union government approved merger of State Bank of India Commercial and International Bank Ltd (SBICI) with its parent bank SBI. SBICI was set up in which of the following year?

A. 1991 B. 1992
C. 1993 D. 1994
E. 1997    

89. Which country’s Airlines recently has placed largest aircraft order in history of Airlines industry?

A. Australia B. Germany
C. United States D. Russia
E. None of the above    

90. After 18 years of negotiations on 22 August 2012, Russia became member of which of the following organisations?

C. World Bank D. WTO
E. ILO    

91. In a recent meeting India and China agreed to work to take steps to ensure that the two countries achieve a USD 100 billion trade target by :

A. 2015 B. 2020
C. 2025 D. 2018
E. 2030    

92. In a discovery that could potentially alter the supply-demand dynamics of the global rare-earth market, Japanese explorers have found large deposits of the minerals on the floor of which of the following oceans? 

A. Indian Ocean B. Arctic Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean D. Pacific Ocean
E. Antarctic Ocean    

93. Belo Monte hydro-electric dam, the third largest dam in the world is located in :

A. China B. Egypt
C. Brazil D. Ethiopia
E. Indonesia    

94. Who among the following has been recently appointed as the Chairman of Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?

A. Poonam Kishore Saxena B. B.K. Chaturvedi
C. Raghuram Rajan D. M C Joshi
E. None of the above    

95. The iconic Bhilai steel plant in Chhattisgarh, a symbol of India’s industrial prowess, may face closure following threats from Maoists who are against which proposed iron ore mine? 

A. Bailadila B. Mahamaya-Dulki
C. Sinshi Gaval D. Rowghat
E. None of the above    

96. Who is the current Chairman of Forward Markets Commission (FMC)?

A. Ashok Ahluwalia B. C. Rangarajan
C. B.K. Chaturvedi D. Ramesh Abhishek
E. M. D. Mallya    

97. Which two smart phonemakers have resolved all their outstanding legal issues over patents by entering into a ten-year licensing arrangement recently?

A. Apple and Motorola B. Apple and Samsung
C. HTC and Samsung D. Apple and HTC
E. None of these    

98. Which of the following, Asia’s largest fresh water lake, was recently in news to be encroached upon over the past century reducing it from 217 sq km to just 125 sq km?

A. Van Sea B. Wullar Lake
C. Caspian Sea D. Kolleru Lake
E. None of the above    

99. The World Energy Forum 2012 was held at - 

A. Dubai B. Johannesburg
C. New Delhi D. Tehran
E. Kuala Lumpur  

Section E - Essay


Essay Topic : "It is not the critic who counts; not the man who points out how the strong man stumbles. The credit belongs to the man in the arena, whose face is marred by dust and sweat and blood"



B 2 C 3 C 4 E 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 E 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 B 22 B 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 A 29 E 30 D
31 E 32 B 33 C 34 A 35 C 36 A 37 B 38 D 39 D 40 E
41 C 42 B 43 A 44 E 45 B 46 D 47 A 48 C 49 C 50 C
51 D 52 E 53 C 54 D 55 D 56 E 57 E 58 C 59 A 60 C
61 D 62 B 63 D 64 C 65 E 66 E 67 D 68 D 69 A 70 B
71 E 72 B 73 A 74 E 75 C 76 B 77 C 78 A 79 A 80 E
81 D 82 D 83 A 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 A 88 D 89 D 90 D
91 A 92 D 93 C 94 A 95 D 96 D 97 D 98 B 99 A